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Fixed Income, Credit & Rates
1Bond Fundamentals
The BondBond Price and YieldPrincipalRedemptionFace Value, Par and PrincipalThe CouponThe IndentureThe IssuerMaturityFixed Income and Debt Securities
2Bond Pricing and Yield
What a Bond Yield…The Policy Rate and a Bond YieldCurrent Yield and Yield to MaturityYield to Maturity and Yield to CallThe Coupon and the YieldReinvestment RiskCarrySpread Return and Price Return
3Interest Rate Risk
Duration and ConvexityDuration and Convexity Calculator,…Key-Rate Duration vs Modified DurationThe Basis PointAccrued InterestRecovery RateSpot Rate and Forward RatePrepayment Risk and Extension RiskA Rate View and a Credit ViewInterest-Rate Risk and Reinvestment RiskHow to Analyse a…How to Review Prepayment…How to Analyse a…
4Rates Markets
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5Curve and Carry Strategies
Curve StrategySteepener, Flattener and ButterflyHow to Read a…How to analyse a Yield-Curve ScenarioThe Butterfly TradeCarry and Roll-Down
6Sovereign Bonds
Sovereign BondsPar Bond and Premium BondGovernment SecuritiesHow to Compare Government…Inflation-Linked BondsBond Total ReturnBond LadderHow to Read a Bond Term SheetHow to Map the…How to Analyse a…Treasury BillsTreasury Bill vs Sovereign BondThe Benchmark YieldThe Policy Rate and the Bond Market
7Credit Risk
Credit RiskCredit Risk and Interest Rate RiskG-Spread, Z-Spread and Option-Adjusted…Credit SpreadTerm Premium and Credit SpreadHow to Build an…Rating ActionsDefault Rate, Loss Given…Expected Credit LossWhat a Credit Rating…A Rating Watchlist EntryThe Fallen AngelThe Credit CurveInvestment Grade and High YieldCollateral vs Guarantee
8Credit Analysis
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9Credit Events and Recovery
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11Fixed Income Portfolios
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12Fixed Income Research
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Duration and Convexity: How Far a Bond Price Actually Moves

Modified duration is the percentage a bond price shifts for one percentage point of yield movement, and it draws a straight line against a relationship that curves. Small moves it handles. Large ones it misreads in a direction that can be predicted, always overstating the loss and understating the gain. Convexity puts a number on that curvature. Two bonds carrying identical modified durations still behave differently, and convexity is the whole of the difference.

What is being held still while the yield moves?

Every number below is the result of one experiment, and the experiment is worth naming before any of the numbers arrive. The schedule of payments is fixed. The convention used to discount them is fixed. Then the yield moves, nothing else moves at all, and what happened to the price is recorded. The experiment is the whole method, and each measure below is a different way of writing down the answer.

The same experiment runs in a kitchen without being called one. A sack of rice goes on the scale and the weight is read. One measure of rice comes out. The weight is read again. The difference is what one measure weighs, and it is a clean answer only because nobody added anything to the sack in between. Duration and convexity are one thing at a time measurements, and the moment a second thing moves alongside the yield, neither figure is the answer any more.

Two invented bonds carry everything that follows. The first is a ten year bullet bond: Rs 1,000.00/- of face, an 8.50 per cent annual coupon so Rs 85.00/- arrives each year, ten years to run, priced at par so its yield is also 8.50 per cent. The second is a zero coupon bondA bond with no coupons at all. One single amount arrives at maturity and nothing before it., introduced later for one reason that becomes obvious when it arrives. Neither carries a credit element of any kind, so every payment arrives in full and on the date it is due.

Now the compounding convention. Every price, yield and rate that follows is on annual compounding, one discounting period a year. The identical figures on a semi annual convention give different prices and different durations, so the convention is part of the answer rather than a footnote to it. Which convention actually attaches to a real instrument is decided by the Reserve Bank of India at rbi.org.in for government securities and by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) at sebi.gov.in for corporate debt.

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How is a waiting time built out of ten payments?

Duration Measures, and the one line that keeps them apart

There is more than one measure with the word duration in it, and the errors people make with them are not subtle. The two measures share a word and share almost nothing else, so the distinction is worth stating in full. A Macaulay durationThe weighted average waiting time of a bond's cash flows, where each weight is that payment's share of the price. Measured in years. is a weighted average waiting time and is measured in years; a modified durationThe percentage a price moves for each one percentage point of yield movement. It is a sensitivity, not a length of time. is a sensitivity, the percentage the price moves per one hundred basis pointsOne hundredth of one percentage point. Two hundred basis points is 2.00 percentage points. of yield movement, and is not a length of time at all. The measure intended belongs in the same sentence as the number, every single time.

Now build the first of them from the payments rather than accepting a formula. The bullet bond hands over ten amounts on ten dates. Discount each one at 8.50 per cent. Divide each of those present values by the total, and the share that results is the payment's weight. The ten weights add to one, being shares of a whole. Multiply each weight by the year the money arrives in. Add the ten products. The sum of those ten products is the MACAULAY duration.

YearPaymentPresent value at 8.50 per centWeightWeight times year
1Rs 85.00/-Rs 78.3410/-0.0783410.078341
2Rs 85.00/-Rs 72.2037/-0.0722040.144407
3Rs 85.00/-Rs 66.5472/-0.0665470.199642
4Rs 85.00/-Rs 61.3338/-0.0613340.245335
5Rs 85.00/-Rs 56.5289/-0.0565290.282644
6Rs 85.00/-Rs 52.1003/-0.0521000.312602
7Rs 85.00/-Rs 48.0187/-0.0480190.336131
8Rs 85.00/-Rs 44.2569/-0.0442570.354055
9Rs 85.00/-Rs 40.7898/-0.0407900.367108
10Rs 1,085.00/-Rs 479.8797/-0.4798804.798797
TotalRs 1,850.00/-Rs 1,000.0000/-1.0000007.119063

Read the fourth column before the fifth. The nine coupons account for 52.01 per cent of the price between them, and the single Rs 1,085.00/- arriving in year ten accounts for 47.99 per cent on its own. A bond with ten years to run therefore has a waiting time of 7.1191 years rather than ten. Almost half the money is at the far end and slightly more than half is spread across everything before it, and the average of those two facts is where the answer lands.

The everyday version costs nothing to see. The average age of a queue is not the age of the last person standing in it. If nine people are near the front and one is at the back, the average sits well short of the back of the queue, and no amount of staring at the last person reveals where. A bond is that queue with money instead of people.

A ten year wait that averages a little over seven years.present value of each payment, in Rs, discounted at the 8.50 per cent yield78.3172.2266.5361.3456.5552.1648.0744.3840.89479.910year the payment arrivesthe same Rs 1,000.00/- price, split by where the money sitsnine coupons together: 52.01 per centyear ten: 47.99Both bonds are invented and carry no credit element. Annual compounding. Every figure recomputed from the cash flows.
Nine coupons between them account for 52.01 per cent of the Rs 1,000.00/- price and the year ten payment for 47.99 per cent on its own, which is what pulls the weighted waiting time of a ten year bond back to 7.1191 years.
The waiting time, written out
$$ D_{mac} = \sum_{t=1}^{n} t \times \frac{CF_t / (1+y)^t}{P} $$
Dmacthe MACAULAY duration, in years
tthe year a payment arrives in, running from one to ten here
CFtthe payment arriving in year t, Rs 85.00/- for nine years and Rs 1,085.00/- in year ten
ythe yield, 0.085 as a decimal, on annual compounding
Pthe price, Rs 1,000.00/-, which is the sum of the discounted payments
What it says in wordsEach payment is valued at what it is worth today, that value is expressed as a share of the whole price, the share is multiplied by the year the payment arrives in, and the ten results are added. The answer is how long the wait runs, on average and weighted by money rather than by count.
Try it out

A bond has a MACAULAY duration of 7.1191 years at a yield of 8.50 per cent. What is its MODIFIED duration, and what has changed besides the number itself?

What does dividing by one plus the yield actually change?

Modified Duration, and why that division is there at all

A waiting time in years is a fact about a bond, and it is not yet an answer to the question anybody asked. The question is how far the price moves. Divide the MACAULAY duration by one plus the yield and the number stops describing time and starts describing a response. Seven point one one nine one divided by 1.085 is 6.5613, and that 1.085 is the entire distance between the two figures.

Turning a waiting time into a sensitivity
$$ D_{mod} = \frac{D_{mac}}{1+y} = \frac{7.1191}{1.085} = 6.5613 $$
Dmodthe MODIFIED duration, a percentage price change per one hundred basis points of yield change
Dmacthe MACAULAY duration of 7.1191 years
ythe yield of 0.085, on annual compounding, one discounting period a year
What it says in wordsDividing the weighted average waiting time by one plus the yield converts a figure measured in years into a figure that measures how many per cent the price moves for each percentage point the yield moves, and the two are never interchangeable.

Now the consequence of confusing the two. A reader who picks up 7.1191 and uses it as the sensitivity is out by 8.5 per cent of their own answer, and out in the direction of exaggerating every move they estimate. On a 200 basis point calculation the error separates a claim of 14.238 per cent from a claim of 13.123 per cent, and the bond does neither. MACAULAY duration is measured in years. MODIFIED duration is measured in per cent per percentage point, and a MODIFIED duration is never written with the word years attached to it.

Try it out

The MODIFIED duration line predicts the same 13.123 per cent move for a rise of 200 basis points in the yield and for a fall of 200 basis points. Do the two actual moves come out equal?

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How wrong is the straight line, and which way is it wrong?

A move of 200 basis points is 2.00 percentage points. Apply the MODIFIED duration to it and the line offers 13.123 per cent of price movement either way. It has to. A straight line has one slope, and one slope cannot say two different things about two moves of the same size. Now reprice the bond properly at each new yield, discounting all ten payments again, and watch the estimate and the bond separate.

A curve, a straight line, and one point where they agree.price of the ten year bullet bond, in Rs, against its yield. The price axis starts at Rs 700.00/-.the bond, repriced in full at every yieldthe modified duration line7008009001,0001,1001,2001,3004.505.506.507.508.509.5010.5011.5012.50yield, per cent a year, annual compoundingthe line and the bond agree hereat 8.50 per cent, Rs 1,000.00/-and at no other yield on the panelBoth bonds are invented and carry no credit element. Annual compounding. Every figure recomputed from the cash flows.
Repricing the bullet bond at every yield traces a curve, while a MODIFIED duration of 6.5613 traces a straight line through it, and the two touch at 8.50 per cent before parting company everywhere else on the panel.

When the yield rises by 200 basis points the bullet bond loses 12.030 per cent, less than the line predicted. When the yield falls by 200 basis points it gains 14.378 per cent, more than the line predicted. Written in rupees on Rs 1,000.00/- of face: the line says Rs 868.7730/- at the higher yield and the bond is worth Rs 879.7045/-, an error of Rs 10.9315/-. The line says Rs 1,131.2270/- at the lower yield and the bond is worth Rs 1,143.7766/-, an error of Rs 12.5496/-. Both errors run the same way.

A move of 200 basis pointsWhat the line saysWhat the bond doesThe line is out by
The yield RISES to 10.50 per centRs 868.7730/-Rs 879.7045/-Rs 10.9315/-
The yield FALLS to 6.50 per centRs 1,131.2270/-Rs 1,143.7766/-Rs 12.5496/-
In percentage terms, against a predicted 13.123 either way13.123 and 13.12312.030 and 14.3781.093 and 1.255

Take the rule out of that table and give it a line of its own. The MODIFIED duration line always overstates the loss and always understates the gain. It is not sometimes wrong and it is not randomly wrong. The line is wrong in a known direction on every reading ever taken, and a tool handed over without that direction has its failure mode filed off.

The estimate is symmetric. The bond is not.price change of the ten year bullet bond, per cent, for 200 basis points of yield movewhat the modified duration line predictswhat the bond actually does0+5-5+10-10+15-15the yield RISES 200 basis points-13.123-12.030the yield FALLS 200 basis points+13.123+14.3781.093 points of lossthat never happened1.255 points of gainthe line never sawBoth bonds are invented and carry no credit element. Annual compounding. Every figure recomputed from the cash flows.
One slope yields one answer, so the line offers 13.123 per cent whichever way the yield goes, while the repriced bond falls 12.030 per cent on a rise of 200 basis points and gains 14.378 per cent on a fall of the same size.

The reason is geometric and it is visible in the figure above. The real relationship between price and yield bends, and it bends so that the curve sits above the straight line on both sides of the point where they touch. Above the line on the right means the price after a rise in the yield is higher than the line claimed, so the loss is smaller. Above the line on the left means the price after a fall in the yield is higher than the line claimed, so the gain is bigger. One piece of geometry, two consequences, and they point in opposite directions only because the words loss and gain do.

Try it out

A loss is estimated with MODIFIED duration and the bond is then repriced in full. Which of the two figures comes out larger, the estimated loss or the actual one?

What is the amount the line missed called?

Convexity, the measure of the bend itself

The gap has a name and the name is convexityA measure of how much the price to yield relationship curves. A second number that picks up what a straight line estimate leaves behind.. Convexity is computed from the same ten payments, with one change: instead of weighting each present value by the year t, weight it by t times t plus one, then divide by one plus the yield squared. Run that on the bullet bond and the answer is 58.4702. The figure is measured neither in years nor in per cent. Convexity is the coefficient on the squared term of an estimate, and its job is to bend the straight line the right way.

The bend, computed from the same payments
$$ C = \frac{1}{(1+y)^2} \sum_{t=1}^{n} t(t+1) \times \frac{CF_t / (1+y)^t}{P} $$
Cconvexity, here 58.4702 for the ten year bullet bond
t(t+1)the weighting that replaces the plain t used for the MACAULAY duration
CFtthe payment arriving in year t, on the same ten dates as before
ythe yield of 0.085, annual compounding
Pthe price of Rs 1,000.00/- these weights are taken as shares of
What it says in wordsWeight every payment by the year it arrives in multiplied by the next year, take the share of the price each one represents, add them, and scale by one plus the yield squared. The larger the answer, the more sharply the price to yield relationship bends away from any straight line drawn through it.

Adding convexity to the estimate is adding a second term. The first term is the straight line: the MODIFIED duration multiplied by the yield change. The second is half the convexity multiplied by the yield change squared, and because a squared number is positive whichever way the yield went, the second term pushes the estimate in the same direction both times. The second term is exactly the correction the arithmetic needed.

The two term estimate
$$ \frac{\Delta P}{P} \approx -D_{mod}\,\Delta y + \tfrac{1}{2} C (\Delta y)^2 $$
ΔP / Pthe estimated price change, as a decimal share of the current price
Dmodthe MODIFIED duration of 6.5613
Δythe change in the yield as a decimal, so 200 basis points is 0.02
Cconvexity of 58.4702, from the block above
What it says in wordsThe estimated percentage price change is the MODIFIED duration multiplied by the yield change, carrying the opposite sign, plus half the convexity multiplied by the yield change squared. The first part is the straight line and the second part bends it back towards the bond.

Put 200 basis points through it. The second term is half of 58.4702 multiplied by 0.02 squared. The result is 1.1694 per cent, and it is added on both sides. So the estimate moves from a symmetric 13.123 per cent to a loss of 11.9533 per cent on the rise and a gain of 14.2921 per cent on the fall, against actual moves of 12.0295 and 14.3777. Most of the gap has closed. About 0.076 of a percentage point survives on the rise and about 0.086 on the fall.

Adding convexity closes most of the gap. Most, not all.per cent change in the price of the ten year bullet bond. Each scale is stretched to show the residue.When the yield RISES 200 basis points-13.4-13.0-12.6-12.2-11.8duration alonethe bond itselfduration plus convexity0.076 points left overWhen the yield FALLS 200 basis points+12.9+13.3+13.8+14.2+14.6duration alonethe bond itselfduration plus convexity0.086 points left overBoth bonds are invented and carry no credit element. Annual compounding. Every figure recomputed from the cash flows.
Bringing convexity of 58.4702 into the estimate pulls it from 13.123 per cent to 11.9533 per cent against a repriced 12.0295 per cent, and what survives is 0.076 of a percentage point on the rise and 0.086 on the fall.

Now measure the error rather than only celebrating the improvement. The habit of measuring is what separates using a tool from believing one. The two term estimate is better than the one term estimate and it is still an estimate. The two term estimate is the first two pieces of an expansion that has more pieces in it, so a residue was always going to survive. Saying how much survives is more useful than presenting the second answer as the answer, and treating a two term estimate as exact repeats the original mistake one level further along.

Try it out

Adding convexity moved the estimate from a loss of 13.123 per cent to a loss of 11.9533 per cent, against an actual loss of 12.0295 per cent. Is the second estimate now exact?

Try it out

Two bonds have exactly the same MODIFIED duration of 6.5613. Will they lose the same amount when the yield rises by 200 basis points?

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Can two bonds share one modified duration and still behave differently?

Duration vs Convexity, set against each other on two bonds

Here is the pair the rest of this subject area keeps coming back to. Beside the ten year bullet bond, place a zero coupon bond whose maturity is set equal to the bullet bond's MACAULAY duration. A zero has only one payment, so its weighted average waiting time is simply the date that payment arrives on: its MACAULAY duration is its maturity. Set that maturity to 7.119062643353 years, price it at the same 8.50 per cent yield, and its MODIFIED duration comes out at 6.5613 as well. Not approximately. The second bond was built to produce that figure, so the match is exact by construction. Its price is Rs 559.47/- on Rs 1,000.00/- of face.

Two roundings sit behind that price, and a reader who checks the arithmetic deserves to know where a paisa went. The maturity above is the bullet bond's MACAULAY duration at full precision, 7.119062643353 years, and at that maturity the zero prices at Rs 559.4657/-, or the Rs 559.47/- used throughout. Recomputed on the rounded 7.1191 years, the price is Rs 559.4640/-, or Rs 559.46/-. The gap is about a sixth of a paise on Rs 1,000.00/- of face, and it moves the zero's convexity from 49.0986 to 49.0991. Both figures are defensible, and a reader who lands one paisa away can see exactly which rounding put them there.

A reader who has met only MODIFIED duration has been told, in effect, that these two bonds move alike. They do not. At a rise of 200 basis points in the yield the bullet bond loses 12.030 per cent and the zero coupon bond loses 12.193 per cent. At a fall of 200 basis points the bullet bond gains 14.378 per cent and the zero coupon bond gains 14.162 per cent. The bullet bond finishes ahead in both directions, by 0.164 percentage points on the rise and by 0.215 on the fall. Both bonds carry the same MODIFIED duration, so MODIFIED duration cannot see one basis point of the difference.

The two bonds, side by sideTen year bullet bondZero coupon bond
Price at an 8.50 per cent yieldRs 1,000.00/-Rs 559.47/-
MACAULAY duration, in years7.11917.1191
MODIFIED duration6.56136.5613
Convexity58.470249.0986
The yield RISES 200 basis pointsless 12.030 per centless 12.193 per cent
The yield FALLS 200 basis pointsplus 14.378 per centplus 14.162 per cent

The difference is convexity, 58.4702 against 49.0986, a gap of 9.3716. And the reason is structural rather than accidental. A zero has all of its money on a single date, so there is no spread of payments for the bend to work on. Concentrating everything at one date is the least curved arrangement a set of payments can have, so for any given MODIFIED duration a zero carries the lowest convexity available. The bullet bond spreads ten payments across ten years around that same average, and the spread is what buys the bend.

Same modified duration. Different behaviour, in both directions.Both bonds carry a MODIFIED duration of 6.5613. The scales below are stretched to make the gap readable.When the yield RISES 200 basis points-12.30-12.18-12.07-11.950.164 points apartthe zero coupon bondthe ten year bullet bondWhen the yield FALLS 200 basis points+14.05+14.20+14.35+14.500.215 points apartthe zero coupon bondthe ten year bullet bondAnd the number that explains all of it, which modified duration cannot carryten year bullet bondconvexity 58.4702zero coupon bondconvexity 49.0986Both bonds sit at the SAME 8.50 per cent yield here, so the extra convexity carries no cost anywhere in this arithmetic.Both bonds are invented and carry no credit element. Annual compounding. Every figure recomputed from the cash flows.
Two bonds built to share a MODIFIED duration of 6.5613 diverge anyway, the bullet finishing ahead by 0.164 percentage points on a rise of 200 basis points and by 0.215 on a fall, since its convexity of 58.4702 stands above the zero at 49.0986.

One caveat belongs in the same breath as these numbers. Both bonds sit at the same 8.50 per cent yield above, and that is what makes the bullet bond's extra convexity look as though it costs nothing. Extra convexity is not free in a real market. Convexity is something people want, so it is paid for, and the more convex of two bonds would ordinarily be bought at a lower yield than the less convex one. No price is put on convexity at either yield above, so the arithmetic shows what these two bonds do and settles nothing about which one anybody should hold. State the arithmetic, name the caveat, stop.

Try it out

The ten year bullet bond finishes ahead of the zero coupon bond in both directions in this record. Does that make it the better bond to hold?

Play with it

Move the yield. Watch the gap open on both sides of one point.

One control, and it is the yield on the ten year bullet bond. The dark curve is the bond repriced in full at every yield from all ten of its payments. The dashed red line is the MODIFIED duration estimate, drawn with a fixed slope of 6.5613 through the starting price. The dotted green curve is the zero coupon bond on the same axes. At this size the gap is small enough on the main panel to be missed by eye, so the bar on the right shows the distance between the line and the bond on a scale of its own.

The control runs from 4.50 to 12.50 per cent in steps of 10 basis points, 400 basis points of rise and 400 basis points of fall around the 8.50 per cent the bond started at.

One control. The yield. Watch the gap open on both sides.Educational illustration. Not a pricing tool and not a valuation. Both bonds are invented.price, in Rs, against the yield, per cent a year, on annual compounding throughoutthe ten year bullet bondthe modified duration linethe zero coupon bond4006008001,0001,2004.505.506.507.508.509.5010.5011.5012.50yield, per cent a yearthe gap, drawnon its own scale,in Rs0204060Rs 0.0000/-Both bonds carry no credit element of any kind.Annual compounding, and one single yield applied to every one of the cash flows.The whole curve is assumed to move by the same amount, which is a parallel move.The MODIFIED duration is held at 6.5613 for both bonds, which is itself an approximation:a real bond changes its own MODIFIED duration as its yield changes. Convexity here is unpriced.
Yield
8.50%
The line says
Rs 1,000.0000/-
The bond is worth
Rs 1,000.0000/-
The line is out by
Rs 0.0000/-
The zero is worth
Rs 559.4657/-

At a yield of 8.50 per cent, exactly where this bond started, the modified duration line says Rs 1,000.0000/- and the bond is actually worth Rs 1,000.0000/-, so the line is out by Rs 0.0000/-, because a straight line and the curve it was drawn against still touch at this one yield.

The worked positions, in plain text so they survive with the drawing stripped away. At the 8.50 per cent default the price is Rs 1,000.00/-, the line and the bond coincide and the gap is Rs 0.0000/-. At 200 basis points of rise the line reads Rs 868.7730/- against a bond worth Rs 879.7045/-, a gap of Rs 10.9315/-. At 200 basis points of fall the line reads Rs 1,131.2270/- against a bond worth Rs 1,143.7766/-, a gap of Rs 12.5496/-. Educational illustration. Not a pricing tool and not a valuation.

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Which other measures answer the same question about a different move?

Active Duration, and the Duration Gap that is the same subtraction

Everything so far has moved the yield on one bond. Changing what moves changes the measure, without changing the method at all. A holding of Rs 5,000 crore of fixed income carries a MODIFIED duration of 5.20 against a benchmark at 4.80. Subtracted, 0.40 is the active durationA holding's modified duration less its benchmark's. A difference between two sensitivities, and not a length of time.. The 0.40 is a difference between two sensitivities and inherits their nature, so it is not 0.40 of anything measured in years.

Put a rupee figure on it and the discipline this measure demands becomes obvious. A parallel rise of 100 basis points costs about 5.20 per cent of the holding, or Rs 260.00 crore. The benchmark part of that is 4.80 per cent of Rs 5,000 crore, or Rs 240.00 crore, and the remaining 0.40 per cent is Rs 20.00 crore. Add Rs 240.00 crore to Rs 20.00 crore and Rs 260.00 crore comes back. The two figures, Rs 260.00 crore and Rs 20.00 crore, differ by thirteen times, one of them is the whole position and the other is the decision, and naming which of the two is meant every single time is the entire discipline of this measure. Most of that exposure was never chosen; it arrived with the benchmark.

One parallel rise, two rupee answers, thirteen times apart.cost of a 100 basis point parallel rise on the Rs 5,000 crore holding, in Rs crorethe whole holdingmodified duration 5.20Rs 260.00 crorethe active part only0.40 above the benchmarkRs 20.00 crorethe decision sits inside the position, not beside itThe benchmark part is 4.80 per cent of Rs 5,000 crore, which is Rs 240.00 crore.Add Rs 20.00 crore to that and Rs 260.00 crore comes back.Parallel means every point on the curve moves by the same amount. No other kind of move is covered by these two figures.The holding and its benchmark are invented. Illustrative arithmetic, not a position anybody holds.
A parallel rise of 100 basis points reads as Rs 260.00 crore against the whole Rs 5,000 crore holding at a MODIFIED duration of 5.20, and as Rs 20.00 crore against the 0.40 sitting above the benchmark, thirteen times apart.

The word parallel is load bearing and is not decoration. Every figure in this block assumes the whole curve moves by the same amount at every point. A twist in the curve is a different move altogether, and none of these figures measures what a twist would cost this holding. Where a reader expects that number, the honest thing is to leave the cell empty and say why.

The duration gapThe difference between the modified duration of an institution's assets and the modified duration of its liabilities. is the identical subtraction pointed at a different pair. Instead of a holding and its benchmark, the pair is an institution's assets and its liabilities, and the MODIFIED duration of the second is subtracted from the MODIFIED duration of the first. The arithmetic does not change by a comma. The two sides change, and so does what the answer says: an active duration says how far a holding sits from what it is measured against, and a duration gap says how far one side of a balance sheet sits from the other.

Spread Duration, which holds the government rate still instead

One more variation, same method again. MODIFIED duration moves the whole yield. Spread durationThe price sensitivity to a move in the spread over the government rate, with the government rate itself held still. holds the government rate fixed and moves only the spread over it, then measures the price response to that alone. Spread duration is the same experiment with a different thing held still, and it is worked out under credit spreads. The three measures share one method: hold everything, move one thing, record the price.

Try it out

A parallel rise of 100 basis points costs the holding Rs 260.00 crore on one reading and Rs 20.00 crore on another. Which figure is which?

Try it out

If the ten year bullet bond's MODIFIED duration of 6.5613 is split across the ten dates its payments arrive on, do the ten pieces come out roughly equal?

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How is one number split across the points of a curve?

Key-Rate Duration, one point on the curve at a time

MODIFIED duration carries an assumption that is easy to miss: that every point on the curve moves together. Real curves do not oblige. Key-rate durationThe price sensitivity to a move in one point on the curve, with every other point held still. drops that assumption and goes back to the method. Bump one point on the curve. Hold every other point exactly where it was. Reprice. Record the sensitivity that belongs to that point alone. Then do it again at the next point.

How to map Key-Rate Exposures across the ten dates

Run on the ten year bullet bond at each of the ten dates its payments arrive on, working from the flat 8.50 per cent curve used throughout, the method gives ten answers. The ten come out as 0.0722, 0.1331, 0.1840, 0.2261, 0.2605, 0.2881, 0.3098, 0.3263, 0.3383 and 4.4229. Two things about that list matter more than the list itself.

Year the payment arrivesWeight, share of priceKey-rate duration
10.0783410.0722
20.0722040.1331
30.0665470.1840
40.0613340.2261
50.0565290.2605
60.0521000.2881
70.0480190.3098
80.0442570.3263
90.0407900.3383
100.4798804.4229
Total1.0000006.5613

First, the ten add to 6.5613, exactly the bond's MODIFIED duration, so key-rate duration is not a rival measure but the same measure taken apart. Nothing was created by splitting it and nothing was lost. Second, 4.4229 of that 6.5613 sits at the ten year point on its own, or 67.4 per cent of the entire sensitivity at one single date. The ten bar map is what anybody means by mapping a key-rate exposure: one bar for each point on the curve, and the bars are nothing like equal.

One sensitivity, taken apart date by date.key-rate duration of the ten year bullet bond at each of its ten payment dates0.072210.133120.184030.226140.260550.288160.309870.326380.338394.422910year the payment arrivesThe nine near dates put together, set against the single date the face amount returnsyears one to nine2.1385year ten alone4.4229Year ten alone carries 67.4 per cent of the whole sensitivity, and the ten add to 6.5613, the MODIFIED duration exactly.Both bonds are invented and carry no credit element. Annual compounding. Every figure recomputed from the cash flows.
Splitting the bullet bond across the ten dates its payments arrive on gives ten sensitivities that add back to 6.5613, of which 4.4229 belongs to year ten alone, or 67.4 per cent of everything the bond is exposed to.

The household version is close enough to be useful. A household with money going out on ten dates in the year is not equally exposed to each of them; if the annual insurance premium and the school fee both land in the same month, that month is where a shock actually reaches. The other nine months are real and they are small. A bond is that pattern with a curve instead of a calendar.

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Which rate has actually been doing the discounting here?

Spot Rate, and the convenience behind a single yield

Every discounting above has used one single yield for all ten payments, and that single yield is a convenience rather than a description. A spot rateThe rate that discounts one single cash flow arriving at one stated future date. A full set of them across dates is what a curve is. is the rate that discounts a single payment arriving at one stated future date, and a full set of them across all the dates is what a curve actually is.

The ten payments of the bullet bond arrive on ten different dates, so strictly each one has its own SPOT rate, and the single yield to maturity is the one rate that happens to reproduce the same total. The key-rate map above had ten answers rather than one for exactly that reason: it went back to the dates. A forward rate is a completely different object that happens to sit at a similar number, so the word SPOT is load bearing and travels with every rate above. The two are separated properly under spot rates and forward rates.

What question are all of these measures built to serve?

Rate Thesis, and why naming one is not the same as holding one

A rate thesis is a position taken on where the general level of rates goes, carried through the MODIFIED duration a holder chooses rather than through which issuer they lend to. The definition ends there. A rate thesis and a credit view are two different questions asked about the same bond, they are answered with different measures, and the difference between them is covered separately.

Naming what a rate thesis is has nothing to do with holding one. A measure of sensitivity carries no view about where rates go, and neither of the two bonds was built to be held. Every figure is an arithmetic consequence of an invented schedule of payments, not an observation about any market anywhere.

Where does a rate move land on an income statement instead of a price?

Interest Coverage and Fixed-Charge Coverage, the borrower's side of the same move

Every measure above this point is about what happens to the price of a bond somebody holds. But a rate move has a second address, and it arrives there through the borrower. Rates rise, and debt that floats reprices while debt that matures has to be refinanced at whatever the new level is, so the interest bill goes with it. The same rise in rates that costs a holder price costs a borrower room in the income statement, and those are two arrivals of one event.

Interest coverageEarnings before interest and tax divided by the interest expense, both measured over the same accounting period. is earnings before interest and tax divided by the interest expense, both measured over the same accounting period, and it counts how many times over the interest bill is covered by what the business earned before paying it. Fixed-charge coverageThe same ratio with the other committed fixed payments added into the base, over the same period. widens the base of that same ratio to take in the other fixed payments the business has committed to, measured over that same period. A coverage figure quoted without its base and its period cannot be read at all, so both belong in the same sentence as the ratio every time.

And the honest limit. A coverage ratio needs an income statement, and neither bond has an issuer with one, so no coverage figure can be computed from these payments. The link is what matters: the measures above give what a rise in the yield does to a price, and these two give what the same rise does to the ability to pay the bill, and a reader who has only ever met the first half of that will keep being surprised by the second.

Try it out

Interest coverage and MODIFIED duration are both affected by a rise in rates. Are they measuring the same thing?

Who actually reaches for these numbers, and for what?

An analyst covering a holding uses MODIFIED duration first as a size check, not as a forecast. The question is not what rates will do; it is how large the position already is with respect to them. A MODIFIED duration of 5.20 on Rs 5,000 crore says a parallel rise of 100 basis points costs roughly Rs 260.00 crore, and that single figure is enough to decide whether the exposure deserves an hour of attention or a week of it. The measure is used to size a question, and the question is answered with other work.

A lender or a treasury reads the same subtraction from the other side, as a duration gap. Money comes in on one set of dates and goes out on another, and the difference in MODIFIED duration between those two sides says which way a rate move helps and which way it hurts. The everyday shape is a household on a floating rate home loan holding a fixed deposit: one side reprices when rates move and the other does not, and the gap between them is exactly what the household feels.

An analyst who has to explain a difference reaches for convexity and for the key-rate map. When two holdings with the same MODIFIED duration behave differently over a quarter, they shared the MODIFIED duration, so the explanation cannot be in it. The explanation is in the shape of the payments, and the two numbers that can see shape are convexity and the ten point map. The right use of a sensitivity is to narrow where the explanation must be, never to supply it.

The error that gets made, and what it actually costs

A reader takes MODIFIED duration as an equals sign rather than as an estimate, and budgets from it. Somebody holding Rs 5,000 crore at a MODIFIED duration of 5.20 reads a rise of 200 basis points as costing 10.40 per cent, or Rs 520.00 crore, and writes that down as the number to plan against. The calculation looks careful. It is not.

Two separate things are wrong with it and they point in opposite directions. Pointing opposite ways is precisely why the mistake survives for years. First, the straight line overstates the loss on a rise in the yield, so the true figure on any ordinary set of bonds is smaller than Rs 520.00 crore, and the reader who was congratulated for being conservative was in fact being imprecise. Second, and far worse, the same reader will apply the same line to a fall in the yield and understate the gain by a similar amount, then be unable to explain why a holding beat a projection nobody could reproduce.

The specific cost is not the money. The cost is that the error is systematic rather than random. The error carries the same sign every single time, so it never cancels across periods; it accumulates. A random error averages away and stops mattering. An error that is always in one direction goes wrong slowly and quietly, and by the time anybody notices, the figure everybody has been planning against has been wrong in the same way for years.

The repair is one line: run the estimate, then reprice, then write the difference down as a number in its own right. The difference is a measurement rather than a mistake.

An error that never changes sign never cancels out.how far the modified duration line sits BELOW the repriced bond, in Rs on Rs 1,000.00/- of face54.05-40029.29-30012.55-2003.03-1000.0002.83+10010.93+20023.81+30041.00+400change in the yield, in basis pointsEvery bar sits on the same side of the line. Nine readings, nine errors, not one of them negative.Both bonds are invented and carry no credit element. Annual compounding. Every figure recomputed from the cash flows.
Measured at nine separate yields, the straight line sits beneath the repriced bond every single time, by Rs 0.00/- at the starting yield and by Rs 54.0548/- four hundred basis points away, never once landing on the other side.
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What does none of this establish?

None of these measures says where rates go. Every one of them is a response to a move, and there is nothing inside a response that settles whether the move happens. Silence about direction is a structural fact about what a sensitivity is.

None of them says whether an issuer pays. Every figure here was computed on bonds with no credit element at all, and adding one changes the question being asked rather than the arithmetic being done. None of them covers a curve that twists rather than shifts, with the single exception of the key-rate map, and that map was built on one bond rather than on the Rs 5,000 crore holding. And none of them prices convexity: the extra 9.3716 the bullet bond carries over the zero coupon bond is an arithmetic fact at one common yield, with no cost attached to it.

India

Where the rules on any of this actually live

Every step of arithmetic above is free of any rule set except the compounding convention, and that convention is stated beside each price. These rules move, and any stated version of one is wrong rather than merely stale the day it changes, so each row below names the authority.

  • The valuation norms a regulated holder must value a bond against. The Reserve Bank of India, rbi.org.in.
  • The capital treatment of interest rate risk on a regulated balance sheet. The Reserve Bank of India, rbi.org.in.
  • Which curve a regulated holder values against, and how that curve is constructed. The Reserve Bank of India, rbi.org.in.
  • The compounding and day count conventions that attach to a given instrument. The Reserve Bank of India, rbi.org.in, and SEBI, sebi.gov.in.
  • The stress scenarios a regulated balance sheet must run on its rate exposure. The Reserve Bank of India, rbi.org.in.
  • What a regulated pooled vehicle must disclose about the duration it carries. SEBI, sebi.gov.in.
Running a calculator over a supplied schedule of payments is covered separately. Key-rate duration is named here and mapped once on one bond; setting key-rate duration against MODIFIED duration on a stated set of criteria is covered separately, and so is what a twist in the curve would do to a holding. The basis point as a unit is covered separately. SPOT rates and forward rates are separated properly under spot rate versus forward rate. A rate thesis against a credit view, and what a spread compensates for, are covered separately. Interest-rate risk against reinvestment risk is covered separately. What a bond is, how it is priced and what a yield to maturity is are covered under bond pricing. How a holding is assembled, and how an institution manages a duration gap, are covered separately.

References

SourceNamed forWhere
The Reserve Bank of IndiaThe valuation norms a regulated holder values a bond against, the capital treatment of interest rate risk on a regulated balance sheet, which curve a regulated holder values against and how it is built, the compounding and day count conventions attaching to an instrument, and any stress scenario requirement on a rate exposurerbi.org.in
SEBIWhat a regulated pooled vehicle must disclose about the duration it carries, and the conventions applying to corporate debtsebi.gov.in

The ten year bullet bond, the zero coupon bond, the curve and the Rs 5,000 crore holding are invented.
Educational material. Not advice on any investment, tax, budget or market position.

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