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078

Case 078Liability management and refinancingCore

A developer needs bondholder consent to sell a subsidiary that a covenant protects, and offers a 0.5% fee for approval. What does it cost the issuer, how should a bondholder decide, and what if the sale weakens the credit?

1The situation

Nirvani Realty has Rs 1,000 crore of listed bonds with four years left, part of Rs 1,800 crore of total debt against EBITDA of Rs 450 crore, so leverage is 4.0x. It wants to sell its rental subsidiary, which earns EBITDA of Rs 90 crore, for Rs 700 crore. A covenant in the bond forbids selling a material subsidiary without the consent of holders of two thirds of the bonds by value.

Nirvani offers a consent fee of 0.5% of face, paid only to holders who vote yes and only if the change passes. The consent document says the proceeds will be used for general corporate purposes. The bonds have a spread duration of about 3.4. A desk estimates the spread would tighten 30 basis points if the proceeds repay debt and widen 80 basis points if they stay in the business or go to shareholders.

2Your task

What does the solicitation cost Nirvani, how should a bondholder decide, and what would you ask for before voting yes?

Quick check

You think the sale will weaken the credit, but you expect most holders to consent anyway. What should you do?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

The fee costs Nirvani at most Rs 5 crore, and holders should approve only if the proceeds are tied to cutting debt. If the Rs 700 crore repays debt, leverage falls to 3.1x and the bond gains; if it stays in the business, leverage rises to 5.0x and the bond loses about 2.7 points, far more than the 0.5 fee. The fee pays for the risk only if the bad outcome is less than about 41% likely.

Step 1What does the consent cost Nirvani?

The fee is paid on bonds that vote yes. If every holder consents it costs Rs 5 crore; at the bare two-thirds threshold, Rs 3.33 crore, plus legal and agency costs. Against a Rs 700 crore sale, the fee is small change, which is exactly why holders have leverage here. A consent solicitationA formal request by an issuer asking bondholders to vote to change or waive a term of the bond, usually with a fee for those who agree. is the cheapest way for an issuer to change a covenant; refinancing the whole bond would cost far more.

Step 2What does the sale do to the credit?

It depends entirely on where the money goes. Selling a business that earns Rs 90 crore of EBITDA removes 20% of Nirvani's earnings. If the Rs 700 crore repays debt, leverage falls from 4.0x to 3.06x; if it does not, the same debt sits on smaller earnings and leverage rises to 5.0x. A family that sells a rented flat and clears its home loan is safer; one that sells the flat and spends the money has lost its rental income and kept its loan. At a spread duration of 3.4, 30 basis points tighter is about +1.02 points of price and 80 basis points wider is about -2.72.

Consent or refuse: once the change passes, the fee is the only differenceHolder ofRs 100 of bondsConsent: +0.50 feeProceeds repay debtleverage 3.06x+1.52Proceeds kept or paid outleverage 5.00x-2.22Refuse, but it passesProceeds repay debtleverage 3.06x+1.02Proceeds kept or paid outleverage 5.00x-2.72If the change fails, the refuser gets 0. Together, consent pays only if the chance of the bad branch is below 41%.
Per Rs 100 of bonds, a consenting holder ends at +1.52 if the proceeds repay debt and -2.22 if they do not, while a refusing holder gets +1.02 or -2.72 if the change passes anyway, so consenting beats refusing by exactly the fee once the change passes.
Step 3How should a bondholder decide?

Split it into two questions. First, if the change is going to pass, you should consent, because the fee is the only difference between the branches. That is the pressure the fee structure is designed to create: each holder is paid to say yes whether or not yes is good for holders as a group. Second, as a group, is the fee enough? Weigh the branches: 0.50 plus 1.02 with probability one minus p, and 0.50 minus 2.72 with probability p. That breaks even at p of about 41%. With the proceeds promised only to general corporate purposes, a holder cannot rule out the bad branch.

The relationship
0.50+1.02 (1−p)−2.72 p=0  ⇒  p=0.50+1.021.02+2.72=40.6%0.50 + 1.02\,(1-p) - 2.72\,p = 0 \;\Rightarrow\; p = \frac{0.50 + 1.02}{1.02 + 2.72} = 40.6\%
0.50consent fee, points per 100 of face
1.02price gain if proceeds repay debt, 3.4 x 0.30
2.72price loss if proceeds stay in the business, 3.4 x 0.80
pchance the proceeds are not used to repay debt
What it says in wordsHolders as a group come out ahead only if the chance of the weakening outcome is below about 41%.
Step 4What would you ask for before voting yes?

Change the terms so the bad branch goes away rather than haggling over the fee. Ask that the proceeds go to repaying debt, for example an offer to buy back bonds at par or above from the sale money, and keep the covenant in force for other subsidiaries. Holders of a third plus one rupee can block the change, so an organised group has real bargaining power. If Nirvani will not commit the proceeds, a higher fee is the fallback, but even 1% would not cover a 2.7 point loss. The limitation: spread moves are estimates, and a rating action could move the price more than the desk expects.

Where candidates lose it

Candidates compare the 0.5% fee with nothing and call it free money. The fee is compensation for giving up a protection, and the right comparison is with the price damage if the sale weakens the credit, which here is more than five times the fee.

The second miss is voting no as a protest while expecting others to consent. If the change passes, refusing only forfeits the fee. The real lever is collective: a blocking third that negotiates the use of proceeds.

What the interviewer asks next

  • Why are consent fees usually paid only to holders who vote yes and only if the change passes?
  • How would the analysis change if the bonds were secured on the rental subsidiary's buildings?
  • Nirvani offers 1% instead. Does that change your answer?
  • What is an exit consent and why are some bond markets hostile to it?
← Case 077You buy mortgage-backed pass-through bonds at 102. How do their average life and yield change if borrowers prepay 10% a year against 25% a year?Case 079 →A contractor buys 50 excavators with 90% loans repaid in equal instalments over five years, and the machines lose 30% of their value in year one. Is the loan ever bigger than the collateral, and when?

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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