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Debt Capital Markets puzzles, solved step by step

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100
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All topicsLeverage, coverage and cash flow9Mental maths and numeracy8Estimation and market sizing7Logic and brainteasers8Cost of capital and valuation riddles7Bond pricing and yield7Compounding, PIK and fees6Issuance and refinancing arithmetic8Credit spreads and default probability8Duration and convexity8Capital structure and recovery8Probability and expected value10Yield curve and forward rates6
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  1. 010An inflation-indexed bond pays a 2% real coupon on Rs 100 of principal, and the principal is indexed to inflation. Inflation runs at 5% a year for three years. What is the principal at the end of year 3, and what coupon is paid that year?Compounding, PIK and feesCoreFixed income asset managementIndian debt capital markets

    Try it first

    What is the year 3 coupon?

    Show the worked solution

    Principal of about Rs 115.76 and a year 3 coupon of about Rs 2.32. The principal is lifted by inflation each year and compounds: 100 times 1.05 cubed is Rs 115.7625. The 2% real coupon is paid on that indexed principal, so the year 3 coupon is Rs 2.315. Both the coupon and the principal keep their buying power, which is what the investor is paying for.

    What exactly is being indexed?

    Think of a rent agreement where the rent rises with inflation every year and the deposit is topped up by the same percentage. On an indexed bond the principal is scaled up by inflation, and the fixed real coupon rate is then applied to that scaled principal, so both the income and the repayment keep pace with prices. After one year of 5% inflation the principal is Rs 105 and the coupon is 2% of 105, Rs 2.10, not Rs 2.

    Indexing lifts the principal, and the coupon is paid on the lifted amount100.00Start105.00End of year 1coupon 2.100110.25End of year 2coupon 2.205115.76End of year 3coupon 2.315ordinary bondstays at 100bars start at 60 so the steps are visible; lime blocks are each year's coupon
    With 5% inflation the indexed principal steps from 100 to 105, 110.25 and 115.76, and each year's 2% coupon is paid on the indexed amount, rising from 2.10 to 2.315, while an ordinary 2% bond stays at 100 and pays 2.00.

    Why does the principal compound instead of adding 5 a year?

    Because the index is a price level, and price levels compound: 5% in year 2 is 5% of the already higher year 1 prices. The indexed principal is the original principal times the ratio of today's index to the index at issue, which after three years of 5% is 1.05 cubed. Adding 5 a year gives 115, off by Rs 0.76, small here but large over a 10 or 20 year bond.

    The relationship
    P3=100×1.053=115.7625C3=2%×P3=2.3153P_3 = 100 \times 1.05^3 = 115.7625 \qquad C_3 = 2\% \times P_3 = 2.3153
    P_3indexed principal at the end of year 3
    1.05one year of 5% inflation
    C_3the coupon paid in year 3
    What it says in wordsGrow the principal with the price index, then pay the real coupon rate on the grown amount.

    What does that mean for the yield an investor sees?

    Bought at Rs 100, the cash flows 2.10, 2.205 and 118.08 give a money return of about 7.1% a year, which is 1.02 times 1.05 minus 1: the real 2% plus inflation plus a small cross term. The investor has locked in a real return of 2% whatever inflation turns out to be, and that certainty is the product. Say the limits: actual indexed bonds use a lagged index, some protect principal from falling below par, and the tax treatment of the uplift varies, so check the specific bond's terms.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common mistake is paying the coupon on the original Rs 100, giving Rs 2.00 in every year. That treats the bond as if only the principal were protected and misses half of what indexing does.

    The second is adding inflation instead of compounding it, giving principal of 115 and a coupon of 2.30. Say 1.05 cubed out loud, and the interviewer hears that you know price levels compound.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Inflation is 5%, 5% and then minus 2% in year 3. What is the principal, and what does a par floor at maturity do?
    • An ordinary 3 year bond yields 7.5%. Roughly what inflation rate makes it and the indexed bond equally attractive?
    • Why might a pension fund prefer indexed bonds even at a lower expected return?
  2. 043An issuer raises Rs 1,000 crore at 8.2% twelve months before its old bond matures and parks the cash at 6.9% until then. What does the pre-funding cost, and what risk does it remove?Compounding, PIK and feesCoreSyndicate desksCorporate banking

    Try it first

    What is the cost of carrying the cash for a year?

    Show the worked solution

    Pre-funding costs about Rs 13 crore of negative carry, before tax. The issuer pays 8.2% on the new bond while earning 6.9% on the parked cash, a 1.3% gap on Rs 1,000 crore for twelve months. In return it removes refinancing risk: it no longer needs the market to be open, spreads to hold and its rating to survive the final year. On a five-year deal, waiting would have to cost more than about 26 basis points a year for pre-funding to lose.

    What exactly does pre-funding cost?

    A family renting a flat signs a new lease a year before the old one ends because rents are rising and good flats are scarce. For twelve months they pay a little extra holding the new flat, but they are not searching in a panic the week the old lease ends. Pre-funding costs the gap between what the new money costs and what the parked cash earns, for as long as both exist: the negative carryThe cost of holding a position whose income is lower than its funding cost, here cash earning less than the bond that raised it.. Here 8.2% less 6.9% is 1.3%, on Rs 1,000 crore for a year, Rs 13 crore, about Rs 1.08 crore a month.

    The relationship
    Carry=1,000×(8.2%−6.9%)×1212=13 crore\text{Carry} = 1{,}000 \times (8.2\% - 6.9\%) \times \tfrac{12}{12} = 13 \text{ crore}
    1,000amount raised early, Rs crore
    8.2%coupon on the new bond
    6.9%yield earned on the parked cash
    12/12the fraction of a year the two overlap
    What it says in wordsThe cost is the rate gap on the amount raised, for the time both the new bond and the parked cash exist.
    Twelve months of negative carry buys certainty on refinancing day123456789101112Months until the old bond maturesRs 13 croreCumulative cost: raise at 8.2%, park at 6.9%1.3% x Rs 1,000 crore = Rs 1.08 crore a monthWhat the premium buysNo need for the market tobe open on one fixed dayNo exposure to spreadswidening in the last yearNo risk a downgrade landsjust before maturityBreakeven: about 26 bp a year on a 5-year deal (33 bp discounted). After 25% tax: Rs 9.75 crore.
    Raising Rs 1,000 crore at 8.2% and parking it at 6.9% costs about Rs 1.08 crore a month, Rs 13 crore by the old bond's maturity, in exchange for removing the need to find a market on one fixed day.

    What does that Rs 13 crore buy?

    Certainty. Without pre-funding, the issuer must refinance in a narrow window before maturity, and if markets are shut, spreads have widened or its rating has slipped in that window, it either pays far more or cannot repay. Pre-funding is insurance with a known premium. A useful breakeven: spread over a five-year replacement bond, Rs 13 crore is about 26 basis points a year before discounting and about 33 after. If waiting risked a rise larger than that, or a missed maturity, the premium was cheap.

    Say the refinements. Interest paid is usually tax deductible and interest earned is taxable, so at an assumed 25% rate on both the after-tax carry is about Rs 9.75 crore. The issuer also carries a bigger balance sheet for a year, gross debt rises before the old bond goes, which can briefly worsen reported leverage. And the parked cash must be invested safely and kept liquid; reaching for yield on it defeats the purpose of paying for certainty.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common miss is quoting the full coupon, Rs 82 crore, as the cost. The cash is not idle; it earns 6.9%, and only the gap is the price of pre-funding.

    The second is stopping at Rs 13 crore and calling it a waste. The interviewer wants the other side of the trade named: refinancing risk, which is exactly what issuers with a large maturity and a shaky market fear most.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The issuer could instead buy back the old bond early. How would you compare the two?
    • The parked cash earns 7.5% instead. What is the carry, and does the answer change?
    • Why do rating agencies look favourably on issuers who pre-fund large maturities?
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