Debt Capital Markets puzzles, solved step by step
- Puzzles
- 100
- Traced to a firm
- 16
- Topics
- 13
- Hard
- 30
013An issuer's existing 8% bond trades at 102.00. The issuer taps the same line to raise Rs 500 crore of cash. How much face value must it issue, and what does it record as debt?Syndicate desksIndian debt capital markets
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How much face value does Rs 500 crore of cash need?
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About Rs 490.2 crore of face value, recorded initially at the Rs 500 crore received. At 102, every Rs 100 of face raises Rs 102, so 500 divided by 1.02 is Rs 490.20 crore. The issuer carries the debt at the cash received and amortises the Rs 9.8 crore premium down to face over the remaining life, so its interest expense sits below the Rs 39.22 crore coupon.
Why does a premium mean less face, not more?
Think of selling gift vouchers with a face value of Rs 100 that are so popular buyers pay Rs 102 for each. To collect Rs 50,000 you need to hand out fewer vouchers than 500. When a bond trades above par, each unit of face value brings in more than its face in cash, so the issuer creates less face than the cash it raises. The bond trades at 102 because its 8% coupon is above the yield investors now demand; the extra Rs 2 is them paying today for that above-market coupon.
At par, Rs 500 crore of face raises Rs 500 crore of cash with a Rs 40 crore coupon; at 102 only Rs 490.2 crore of face is needed, the Rs 9.8 crore premium makes up the rest, and the coupon on the new bonds is Rs 39.22 crore a year. The relationshipF face value to issue, Rs crore P price per Rs 100 of face, 102.00 premium cash raised above the face value What it says in wordsDivide the cash wanted by the price per rupee of face; the difference between the two is the premium.What goes on the balance sheet?
Under amortised cost accounting, which Ind AS and IFRS use for most issued bonds, the debt starts at the cash received, Rs 500 crore before issue costs, not at the face value. The premium is then released over the bond's remaining life, so the carrying amount falls to Rs 490.2 crore by maturity and the interest expense is the effective yield on the carrying amount, below the cash coupon. Covenants that test debt may use face value instead, so check which number the documents count; the accounting details belong to the issuer's auditors.
What else must you check on a tap?
Three practical points. Taps usually settle between coupon dates, so buyers also pay accrued interest, which is cash in hand but not new debt, and it should not be counted in the Rs 500 crore. Face is issued in set denominations, so Rs 490.2 crore rounds to what the minimum lot allows. And the issuer should compare the tap with a fresh issue: tapping an existing line at 102 adds liquidity to one bond, which investors often value, while a new bond with a lower coupon might price differently.
Where candidates lose it
The instinctive wrong answer is Rs 510 crore, as if a premium meant issuing more. Candidates see 102 and add 2%. Get the direction first: buyers pay more than face, so less face is needed.
The second loss is recording debt at Rs 490.2 crore of face and booking a Rs 9.8 crore gain. The premium is not income; it is released over the life as a lower interest expense.
What the interviewer asks next
- The tap settles 60 days after the last coupon. How much accrued interest do buyers pay?
- What yield does a price of 102 imply if the bond has 5 years left?
- Why might an issuer prefer to tap an existing line rather than launch a new bond?
029An investor asks for Rs 300 crore of 4.5-year paper at 8.35%. The issuer's curve is 8.10% at 3 years and 8.40% at 5 years. Is the reverse enquiry at, above or below fair value for the issuer, and by how much?Syndicate desksIndian debt capital markets
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Where does the issuer's curve sit at 4.5 years?
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The ask is about 2.5 basis points above the issuer's fair level, a small concession. Interpolating between 8.10% at 3 years and 8.40% at 5 years puts 4.5 years at 8.325%. Paying 8.35% costs the issuer 2.5 basis points on Rs 300 crore, about Rs 7.5 lakh a year and Rs 33.75 lakh over the life, which is often less than a public deal would need to clear.
What do you compare a reverse enquiry against?
A buyer walks into a tailor and asks for a jacket in a size the shop never stocks. The tailor prices it from the sizes either side, not from a different shop's rate card. A reverse enquiry, where an investor asks the issuer for a tailored bond, is judged against the issuer's own curve at that exact tenor. The issuer's 3-year and 5-year yields bracket the request, so the fair yield at 4.5 years comes from reading between them.
The relationship8.10%, 8.40% the issuer's yields at 3 and 5 years (4.5 - 3)/(5 - 3) how far along the gap the requested tenor sits, three quarters What it says in wordsWalk three quarters of the way from the 3-year yield to the 5-year yield.The issuer's curve reads 8.325% at 4.5 years, so the investor's 8.35% ask sits 2.5 basis points above it, worth about Rs 7.5 lakh a year on Rs 300 crore. Is 2.5 basis points a lot?
Put it in rupees. One basis point on Rs 300 crore is Rs 3 lakh a year, so 2.5 basis points is Rs 7.5 lakh a year, about Rs 33.75 lakh over 4.5 years before discounting. Against that, a reverse enquiry saves the issuer the cost of a public deal: no roadshow, no marketing, and no new issue concessionThe extra yield a new bond usually offers over the issuer existing bonds so that investors take it up.. If a public 4.5-year deal would need a concession wider than 2.5 basis points to clear, the enquiry is the cheaper route.
Say the assumption and its limit. Linear interpolation treats the curve as a straight line between 3 and 5 years. Real curves usually bend, flattening as tenor lengthens, so the true 4.5-year point may sit a fraction above 8.325%, which would shrink the gap. An odd tenor also leaves the issuer with a bond that matches nothing else outstanding and trades less easily, which is one reason investors pay a little for the tailoring and issuers are willing to give a little back.
Where candidates lose it
The common error is comparing 8.35% with the nearest point, 8.40% at 5 years, and calling the ask cheap for the issuer. The tenor is 4.5 years, and the right benchmark is the curve at 4.5 years, not the closest liquid bond.
The second loss is giving the answer only in basis points. A syndicate desk speaks in rupees to the issuer's treasurer: Rs 7.5 lakh a year is the number that makes the decision concrete.
What the interviewer asks next
- The issuer's 4-year bond trades at 8.28%. Does that change your fair value?
- The investor wants a call option at year 3. Should the yield go up or down?
- Why might an issuer accept a reverse enquiry that is slightly above its curve?
064An issuer's outstanding bonds trade at 8.10% for 5 years and 8.40% for 7 years. It prices a new 6-year bond at 8.40%. What new issue premium did it pay against its own curve?Syndicate desks
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What new issue premium did the issuer pay?
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The issuer paid a new issue premium of about 15 basis points. Its own curve runs from 8.10% at 5 years to 8.40% at 7 years, so a fair 6-year yield, interpolated halfway, is 8.25%. The new bond priced at 8.40%, 15 basis points wide of that. On a Rs 1,000 crore issue that is Rs 1.5 crore a year of extra coupon, about Rs 6.9 crore in today's money over six years.
What is fair value for a bond that does not exist yet?
If flats in one building sell for Rs 80 lakh on the fifth floor and Rs 84 lakh on the seventh, a sixth-floor flat is fairly priced near Rs 82 lakh; asking Rs 84 lakh for it is a premium. A new bond's fair value is read off the issuer's own curve at the new bond's maturity, because that curve already prices this issuer's credit. With points at 5 and 7 years, the 6-year point is the straight-line midpoint: 8.10% plus half of 30 basis points, 8.25%.
The issuer's curve runs from 8.10% at 5 years to 8.40% at 7 years, putting fair value for a 6-year bond at 8.25%, so the new 6-year bond priced at 8.40% paid a new issue premium of 15 basis points. The relationshipy_6 the interpolated fair yield for a 6-year bond from this issuer (6-5)/(7-5) how far along the gap between the 5-year and the 7-year the new bond sits NIP new issue premium, the new bond's yield less its fair value What it says in wordsFair value comes from the issuer's own curve at the new maturity; the premium is what the new bond pays above it.Why do issuers pay a premium at all, and what does it cost?
Investors want a small concession for buying a new bond rather than the existing ones: they take size, commit before the bond trades, and often sell other holdings to make room. The syndicate desk's job is to keep that premium as small as the order book allows. Here 15 basis points on Rs 1,000 crore is Rs 1.5 crore of extra coupon a year, about Rs 6.9 crore today over six years at 8.40%, which is why syndicate desks argue over five basis points.
State the assumptions behind the answer. Linear interpolation assumes the curve is straight between 5 and 7 years; a curve that bows would move fair value by a few basis points. The outstanding bonds may also be small or rarely traded, so their yields can carry a liquidity premium of their own. A desk would check the answer against a second yardstick, such as the spread over the government curve, before calling the premium high or low.
Where candidates lose it
The usual slip is comparing with the wrong bond: against the 7-year the premium looks like zero, against the 5-year it looks like 30 basis points. The new bond is a 6-year, so fair value has to come from the 6-year point on the curve.
The second loss is not saying how you interpolated. Say straight line between the two points, give 8.25%, and note that a curved line could move the answer by a few basis points.
What the interviewer asks next
- The issuer's 7-year bond is illiquid and trades 10 basis points wide of fair. What is the premium now?
- The book was four times covered. What does that tell you about the 15 basis points?
- How would you estimate the premium for a first-time issuer with no bonds outstanding?
081A Rs 1,000 crore 5-year bond is priced at 100 and trades at 100.40 on the break. Its modified duration is 4.5. How many basis points did the issuer leave on the table, what is that in rupees, and was a 10 basis point new issue premium too generous?Syndicate desks
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How many basis points of yield is a 0.40 point price rise on this bond?
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About 8.9 basis points, or roughly Rs 4 crore, and yes, 10 basis points looks generous. A 0.40 point rise on a duration of 4.5 is 0.40 / 4.5 = 8.9 basis points of tightening. On Rs 1,000 crore, 0.40 points is Rs 4.0 crore of value that went to investors. Almost all of the premium came back on the first trade, so the book would probably have cleared tighter.
How do you turn a price jump into basis points?
A shop that sells out of a new phone in an hour, and then sees it resold online for more, has learned that it priced too low. A bond's first trades tell the issuer the same thing. Modified durationThe approximate percentage price change for a one point change in yield. is the exchange rate between price and yield: here a 1 basis point move in yield moves the price by about 4.5 hundredths of a point. So a price rise of 0.40 points means the market is valuing the bond about 8.9 basis points tighter than where it was priced.
A 0.40 point rise on a duration of 4.5 is 8.9 basis points of tightening and Rs 4.0 crore of value, which is nearly all of the 10 basis point premium the issuer paid, leaving only 1.1 basis points that the market still required. The relationshipDelta P / P the percentage price change on the break, 0.40% D_mod modified duration, 4.5 Delta y the implied change in yield What it says in wordsDivide the percentage price move by duration to get the yield move that caused it.What does the Rs 4 crore actually cost the issuer?
It is paid through the coupon, not written as a cheque. Pricing about 8.9 basis points too wide costs Rs 0.89 crore a year on Rs 1,000 crore, for five years: Rs 4.4 crore in total, or about Rs 3.6 crore in today's money at an assumed 7.5% yield, the same order as the Rs 4.0 crore jump in the bond's price. The first trade after pricing tells you how much of the premium was needed, because it shows where investors will buy the bond once the allocation is done.
So was 10 basis points too much?
On these numbers, most of it. But say two things before you convict the syndicate desk. First, strip out the market: if benchmark yields fell 3 basis points during the same session, only 5.9 basis points of the move belongs to the deal. Second, some positive performance is deliberate. Investors who were allocated want to see the bond trade well, and a flat or weak break makes the issuer's next deal harder to fill. A generous premium is a cost this time and an investment in the next book; the judgement is whether nearly the whole premium needed to be spent.
Where candidates lose it
The fast wrong answer treats 0.40 points as 40 basis points. Points are price, basis points are yield, and duration converts one into the other. Say the division out loud so the interviewer hears the method.
The second loss is a one-sided verdict. Calling the premium wasted without adjusting for the market move, or without mentioning why desks want some aftermarket performance, sounds like arithmetic without judgement.
What the interviewer asks next
- The bond had instead traded at 99.80 on the break. What does that tell you, and who is unhappy?
- How would you separate the deal's own performance from a market rally on the same day?
- Why might an issuer accept paying a premium it does not strictly need?
099At initial price thoughts of 150 basis points over the benchmark, a bond's order book is 4 times covered. Each 5 basis points of tightening loses 10% of the original demand. How far can you tighten and still keep the book at least 2 times covered?Syndicate desks
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Where does the book hit 2 times cover?
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You can tighten 25 basis points, to 125, and still be 2 times covered. Each 5 basis point step loses 10% of the original demand, which is 0.4x of cover. Going from 4.0x to 2.0x gives up 2.0x, or five steps, so 5 x 5 = 25 basis points. On a Rs 500 crore deal the book falls from Rs 2,000 crore to Rs 1,000 crore, and the issuer saves Rs 1.25 crore a year.
What is actually being traded off?
A shopkeeper with a queue of forty customers for twenty items can raise the price, and some customers will walk away; the question is how high to go before the queue gets too short to be comfortable. Book-building trades cover for price: each step tighter saves the issuer money and costs orders, and cover is the buffer against a weak aftermarket. Here every 5 basis points costs 0.4x, because the loss is 10% of the original book each time.
Starting at 4.0x cover at 150 basis points, each 5 basis points of tightening removes 0.4x, so the book reaches the 2.0x floor at 125 and any further tightening leaves it under-covered. The relationships the final spread in basis points 0.4 the cover lost per 5 bp step, 10% of the original 4.0x 2.0 the minimum cover you want to keep What it says in wordsCover falls by the same amount every step, so divide the cover you can spare by the cover each step costs.Would you really go all the way to 125?
Not automatically. The linear rule is a model of the book; real books drop in lumps, because price-sensitive orders carry limits and the orders that leave first are often the highest quality long-term investors. Landing exactly on the 2.0x floor leaves no margin if a few orders drop after the final terms. A syndicate desk might stop one step short, at 130 with 2.4x cover, giving up Rs 0.25 crore a year of saving on Rs 500 crore for a safer book and a better chance of a positive break. The arithmetic sets the limit; the judgement picks the point inside it.
Where candidates lose it
The common slip is treating 10% as 10% of the remaining book, which makes each step smaller and the answer wider than 25 basis points. The question says original demand, so the steps are equal.
The second loss is stopping at the number. The interviewer wants to hear what cover is for, why the real book is lumpier than the model, and why a desk might leave some tightening unused.
What the interviewer asks next
- If each step lost 10% of the remaining book instead, how far could you tighten?
- What else in the book, besides its size, would you look at before tightening?
- Why might an issuer prefer a larger deal at 130 to the planned size at 125?
