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Debt Capital Markets puzzles, solved step by step

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  1. 020Senior debt of Rs 300 crore, subordinated notes of Rs 200 crore and trade claims of Rs 100 crore are all unsecured, but the notes are contractually subordinated to the senior debt only. Enterprise value is Rs 300 crore. Who gets what?Capital structure and recoveryHardRestructuringCredit research

    Try it first

    What do the trade creditors recover?

    Show the worked solution

    Senior debt gets Rs 250 crore, the subordinated notes nothing, and trade creditors Rs 50 crore. All three are unsecured, so first share Rs 300 crore pro rata across Rs 600 crore of claims: 150, 100 and 50. The notes then turn their Rs 100 crore over to the senior debt, which is still owed 150, leaving senior at 250. Trade creditors signed nothing, so they keep their 50.

    What is contractual subordination, in plain terms?

    Two siblings borrow from their parents and from a neighbour. The younger sibling promises the elder that any repayment the younger receives will be handed over until the elder is repaid. The neighbour never heard about that promise and is unaffected. Contractual subordinationAn agreement by one class of creditors to be paid only after a named senior class, enforced by handing over anything received until the senior class is paid in full. is a promise between two classes, so it moves value between them and leaves every other creditor exactly where the law puts them.

    Subordination re-routes the notes' share to the senior debt; trade is untouchedStep 1: pro rata, 50% each150claim 300Senior debt50%100claim 200Sub notes50%50claim 100Trade claims50%Step 2: notes turn over to senior250claim 300Senior debt83%0claim 200Sub notes0%50claim 100Trade claims50%+100
    Rs 300 crore shared pro rata over Rs 600 crore of claims gives senior 150, notes 100 and trade 50; the notes then hand their 100 to the senior debt, ending at senior 250, notes 0 and trade 50, so trade recovers the same 50% either way.

    Why share pro rata first, before applying the subordination?

    Because in the eyes of the insolvency law all three claims are unsecured and of equal rank. The legal waterfall treats them pari passu; the subordination agreement then works on what the noteholders receive, not on the waterfall itself. So compute the pro rata split, 50% each on Rs 600 crore of claims, then apply the turnover: senior is still owed Rs 150 crore, and the notes' Rs 100 crore goes to it in full. Had the notes' share exceeded what senior was owed, the surplus would stay with the notes.

    The relationship
    Senior=150+min⁡(300−150, 100)=250Notes=100−100=0Trade=50\text{Senior} = 150 + \min(300 - 150,\ 100) = 250 \qquad \text{Notes} = 100 - 100 = 0 \qquad \text{Trade} = 50
    150senior's pro rata share, 50% of 300
    100the notes' pro rata share, turned over to senior
    300 - 150what senior is still owed after its own share
    What it says in wordsSenior takes its own share plus the notes' share, up to the amount it is still owed; trade keeps its pro rata share.

    What would a wrong reading cost each class?

    Reading the notes as subordinated to everyone, a straight ladder, would pay senior 300 in full, trade nothing and notes nothing, a strict waterfall that takes Rs 50 crore from trade creditors who never agreed to it. The difference between subordinated to a named class and subordinated to all creditors is worth real money, so a credit analyst reads the subordination clause before building any recovery table. In real cases, check also whether senior's post-filing interest counts in the turnover, which the documents decide.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common error is building a simple ladder: senior first, then trade, then notes. That pays senior 300 and trade 0, and misses that the notes promised to stand behind the senior debt only.

    The second is applying pro rata and stopping, leaving the notes with 100. The agreement exists precisely to move that 100, so finish the turnover step and say what it is.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Enterprise value rises to Rs 480 crore. Who gets what now?
    • How would the answer change if the notes were subordinated to all senior obligations, including trade?
    • Why do senior lenders value a subordination clause in a creditor that ranks equally with them by law?
  2. 030Senior lenders are owed Rs 400 crore and junior lenders Rs 200 crore; enterprise value is Rs 380 crore. The juniors threaten a fight that would take six months and cost 10% of enterprise value. Should the seniors give the juniors 5% of the new equity to settle?Capital structure and recoveryHardRestructuringCredit research

    Try it first

    The juniors are out of the money. What do the seniors keep if they settle, against if they fight and win?

    Show the worked solution

    Yes: settling leaves the seniors Rs 361 crore against Rs 342 crore by fighting, Rs 19 crore better. A fight that costs 10% of Rs 380 crore shrinks value to Rs 342 crore before anyone is paid. Giving the juniors 5% of Rs 380 crore costs Rs 19 crore. The seniors should pay anything up to 10% of the equity to avoid the fight, before counting six months of delay.

    Why pay anything to a class that is out of the money?

    Two heirs argue over a house worth Rs 38 lakh. One has the clear legal claim; the other can drag the case through court for a year and run up lawyers' fees of Rs 3.8 lakh. The strong heir who hands over Rs 1.9 lakh to end it keeps more than one who wins in court. A settlement payment to a junior class is rational whenever it costs less than the value the fight would destroy. Being right about priority does not make fighting free: the costs come out of the same pot.

    Here the seniors are owed Rs 400 crore against Rs 380 crore of value, so under absolute priorityThe rule that each class of creditor is paid in full before the class below it gets anything. the juniors get nothing and the seniors take the whole company. The juniors' only lever is delay and cost. Fighting burns 10% of value, Rs 38 crore, leaving Rs 342 crore.

    Give away 5% of a bigger pie, or keep 100% of a smaller oneSettle nowSeniors 95%: 361Juniors 5%: 19EV 380Senior recovery 90.25%Fight for six monthsSeniors 100%: 342Lost to the fight: 38EV 342Senior recovery 85.5%
    Settling gives the seniors 95% of Rs 380 crore, Rs 361 crore, while fighting and winning gives them 100% of a value cut to Rs 342 crore, so the 5% gift leaves the seniors Rs 19 crore better off.

    How big a gift would still make sense?

    The relationship
    (1−s)×380≥342  ⇒  s≤10%(1 - s) \times 380 \ge 342 \;\Rightarrow\; s \le 10\%
    sthe share of new equity handed to the juniors
    380enterprise value if the deal settles now
    342enterprise value after a fight costing 10%
    What it says in wordsThe seniors are ahead as long as what they give away is smaller than what the fight would burn.

    The seniors break even at a gift of 10%, the same as the share of value the fight would destroy. At 5% they are comfortably inside that line, and the six months of delay tips it further, because a recovery received now is worth more than the same recovery received later and a distressed business often loses customers and staff while it waits. Senior recovery rises from 85.5% to 90.25% of their claim.

    Say the limits too. The answer assumes the seniors would win the fight outright; if there is any chance the juniors win something, settling looks better still. It also assumes the 10% cost estimate is honest. And a gift to one class can invite others to threaten the same thing, which is why seniors often pair the equity with warrants or tie it to the juniors voting for the plan.

    Where candidates lose it

    The instinctive answer is no: the juniors are out of the money, so giving them anything breaks priority and rewards a threat. That answers a fairness question the interviewer did not ask.

    The question is what maximises the seniors' recovery. Compare 95% of the bigger value with 100% of the smaller one, then give the breakeven gift. Candidates who stop at priority rules miss that the fight is paid for with the seniors' own money.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What if the juniors have a 30% chance of winning a Rs 60 crore share in court?
    • How would warrants rather than equity change the juniors' incentive?
    • Why do courts and plans sometimes allow this kind of gift, and when is it challenged?
  3. 086A holding company has Rs 200 crore of bonds and no other debt. Its only asset is an operating company worth Rs 700 crore, which has Rs 600 crore of its own loans. What do the holding company bondholders recover in a default, and what changes if the operating company guarantees the holding company bonds?Capital structure and recoveryHardRestructuringCredit research

    Try it first

    Without the guarantee, what do the holding company bonds recover?

    Show the worked solution

    Without the guarantee the bonds recover 50%; with it, about 87.5%. The operating lenders are paid first from the Rs 700 crore, so only Rs 100 crore reaches the holding company for Rs 200 crore of bonds. A guarantee gives the bonds a direct claim on the operating company, equal with its loans if both are unsecured: Rs 700 crore across Rs 800 crore of claims, Rs 175 crore to the bonds.

    Why do holding company bondholders get only what is left?

    Lend money to a friend whose only asset is a stake in the family shop. If the shop fails, its suppliers and its bank are paid out of the shop's till first, and your friend receives only what is left over, if anything. Holding company bonds sit in exactly that position. The holding company owns shares, not assets, so its lenders are paid only from the equity value of the operating company, after every creditor of the operating company has been paid in full. This is called structural subordinationBeing junior not because of a clause in the documents but because your borrower sits higher up a corporate chain than the assets., and no ranking clause in the bond documents can undo it.

    Where the debt sits decides who is paid from the operating assetsNo guarantee: bonds wait for what is left700Opco value600 of 600Opco loans100.0%-100100 of 200Holdco bonds50.0%loans paid first, 100 flows up as equityOpco guarantees the bonds700Opco value-75525 of 600Opco loans87.5%-25175 of 200Holdco bonds87.5%one pool of 800 in claims shares 700
    Without a guarantee the operating lenders take their full Rs 600 crore and the holding company bonds recover Rs 100 crore of Rs 200 crore, 50%; with a guarantee both sets of creditors share Rs 700 crore across Rs 800 crore of claims and each recovers 87.5%.

    What does the guarantee change, and for whom?

    An upstream guarantee from the operating company gives the bondholders a second claim, this time directly against the operating assets. If that claim ranks equally with the operating loans, the two groups share Rs 700 crore across Rs 800 crore of claims: 87.5% each, Rs 175 crore to the bonds and Rs 525 crore to the loans. The bondholders' gain of Rs 75 crore is exactly the operating lenders' loss of Rs 75 crore; a guarantee does not create value, it moves the queue. That is why operating lenders often limit or prohibit such guarantees in their own documents.

    The relationship
    Rno guarantee=max⁡(700−600, 0)200=50%Rguarantee=700600+200=87.5%R_{\text{no guarantee}} = \frac{\max(700 - 600,\,0)}{200} = 50\% \qquad R_{\text{guarantee}} = \frac{700}{600 + 200} = 87.5\%
    700value of the operating company
    600operating company loans
    200holding company bonds
    What it says in wordsWithout a guarantee the bonds get the leftover equity; with one they share the whole value pro rata.

    What assumption would flip the answer back to 50%?

    If the operating loans are secured on all of the operating assets, they are paid in full from the collateral before any unsecured guarantee claim, and the bonds are back to the Rs 100 crore residual. Label and security both matter: a guarantee only helps against creditors it can rank alongside. In real documents guarantees can also be capped or challenged, so a credit analyst reads the guarantee and the intercreditor terms before trusting a number like 87.5%.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common error is adding everything up, 600 plus 200 against 700, and giving the bonds a pro rata 87.5% with no guarantee in sight. That treats holding company bonds as if they were lenders to the operating company, which they are not.

    The second loss is missing that the guarantee is a transfer. Candidates who say the bondholders are better off without adding that the operating lenders are worse off by the same Rs 75 crore have missed half of the answer.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • If the operating company also had Rs 50 crore of trade creditors, what would each group recover with the guarantee?
    • Why would a holding company bond pay a higher coupon than an operating company loan from the same group?
    • What would the holding company bonds recover if the operating company were worth Rs 900 crore?
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