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Debt Capital Markets interview preparation

Bond mechanics, duration, credit spreads, ratings, primary issuance, syndicated loans, structured credit, covenants and liability management, plus the Indian debt market. Every question is either traced to a named firm from a public candidate report, or tagged at desk level when we could not trace it.

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Question bank

100 questions, mapped to the firms that asked them

Questions
100
Traced to a firm
45
Firms
26
Updated
September 2026
Asked at
All firmsTSTruist Securities5PIMCO4TD Securities4Apollo Global Management3Nomura3Scotiabank3Bain Capital2Houlihan Lokey2Mizuho2Neuberger Berman2Oaktree Capital Management2RCRBC Capital Markets2Carlyle Group1Deutsche Bank1Golub Capital1HPS Investment Partners1Invesco1KKR1Lazard1Moelis & Company1Moody's1Northern Trust1NUNuveen1Rothschild & Co1S&P Global1Wells Fargo Securities1
Topic
All topicsBond mechanics11Duration and convexity6Yield curve and rates5Credit spreads5Credit analysis and ratings13Credit modelling9Primary issuance9Syndication and loans10Structured credit7Covenants and documentation5Liability management5Indian debt markets7Fit8
Level
AnyCoreIntermediateHard
Type
AnyTechnicalBrainteaserMarket viewCaseFit
Showing 1–3 of 3 · filtered from 100Clear filters
  1. 064What is a hung deal, and how does a bank get out of one?Syndication and loansHardsuperdayLeveraged financeSyndicate desks

    Say this

    A hung deal is an underwritten financing the arranger cannot syndicate at or inside the flexed terms, so it stays on the bank's balance sheet. You get out of it three ways: sell at a discount and take the loss, hold and wait for the market to come back, or restructure the financing with the sponsor's help.

    Then walk it

    1. How it happens: the bank signs an underwritten commitment when markets are good, then markets deteriorate between signing and syndication. That window is typically two to four months on a large LBO, which is plenty of time for spreads to move 200 basis points.
    2. Once flex is exhausted, the options are all bad. Sell at an original issue discount deep enough to clear — 85 or 90 cents, with the discount coming out of the bank's fees and then its capital. Hold it on balance sheet, which consumes capital and gets marked to market every quarter. Or reopen the structure with the sponsor.
    3. The sponsor-assisted routes: the sponsor writes a larger equity cheque, takes back a vendor note or PIK piece, or buys a slice of its own debt. Sponsors do this to preserve the bank relationship and to get the deal done, but it hits their returns.
    4. Real numbers from the last cycle: the Citrix and Twitter financings in 2022 are the reference cases. Banks sold Citrix paper in the 80s and took reported losses in the hundreds of millions on a single deal, and several large hung positions sat on balance sheets into 2023.
    5. The knock-on effects are what an interviewer wants next. A bank carrying hung paper stops underwriting, which shuts the LBO market, which is why large-cap sponsor M&A dried up through 2022 and private credit took share by offering certainty without market risk.
    6. The preventative measures banks now use: smaller underwriting tickets, larger bank groups, wider flex and lower caps, pre-marketing to anchor investors before signing, and in some cases syndicating the risk to private credit funds up front.

    Where candidates lose it

    Confusing a hung deal with a credit problem. The borrower may be fine. The loss is a market-price loss on paper the bank could not distribute, and saying that distinction out loud is what shows you understand underwriting risk.

    Expect next

    • Who bore the loss on Citrix?
    • How has underwriting practice changed since 2022?
    • Why did private credit win share from this?
  2. 065Why would a sponsor prefer high yield bonds over bank debt to finance an LBO?Syndication and loansIntermediatetechnicalLazardGeneralist · Amsterdam · 2025

    Say this

    Flexibility and certainty of cost, paid for with a higher coupon. High yield gives you a longer bullet maturity, no maintenance covenants, a fixed rate, and a much larger investor base — so no amortisation draining cash and no quarterly covenant test to trip during the J-curve.

    Then walk it

    1. No amortisation. A bond is a bullet, so all the operating cash flow stays in the business to fund growth or bolt-ons, rather than paying down principal on a bank schedule. For a sponsor running a five-year hold, that is worth real IRR.
    2. Incurrence rather than maintenance covenants. You only test ratios when you actively do something — raise debt, pay a dividend, make an acquisition. There is no quarterly leverage test to breach because of a bad quarter, which removes the risk of handing control to lenders early in the hold.
    3. Fixed rate. In a rising rate environment a fixed coupon locks the cost of capital for the whole hold, whereas a floating rate loan leaves the interest bill exposed. Borrowers who financed floating at 2021 spreads found out exactly what that meant in 2023.
    4. Longer tenor and bigger market. Bonds run 7 to 10 years against 7 for a TLB and 5 for a TLA, and the bond buyer base is far deeper for very large quantum. A 5 billion dollar financing may need bonds simply because the loan market cannot absorb it all.
    5. The cost of all this: a higher coupon, typically 100 to 250 basis points over the equivalent loan, plus hard call protection. That is the real trade — you pay more and you lose the right to refinance cheaply when the credit improves.
    6. Which is why most sponsors do both. A TLB for the prepayable, cheaper portion and a senior secured or unsecured bond for the covenant-light, long-dated portion. The optimal split depends on which market is open and how fast they expect to deleverage.

    Where candidates lose it

    Answering 'because bonds are cheaper'. They are not — they are more expensive. The reasons are covenant flexibility, no amortisation, fixed cost and tenor. Getting the direction of pricing wrong here is fatal on a leveraged finance desk.

    Expect next

    • So what does the sponsor give up?
    • Why does a sponsor use both a TLB and bonds?
    • Where does private credit fit into that choice now?

    Reported by candidates at Lazard (Generalist, Amsterdam, 2025). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

  3. 067What are the primary categories of collateral securing an asset-based loan, and what are the nuances for each?Syndication and loansHardtechnicalTSTruist SecuritiesAsset Finance · Atlanta · 2023

    Say this

    Four main categories: accounts receivable, inventory, machinery and equipment, and real estate. Each gets an advance rate in the borrowing base, and the nuance is in the eligibility criteria and the dilution reserves, because that is where the actual availability is won or lost.

    Then walk it

    1. Receivables: the best collateral, typically 85 percent advance rate. But only eligible receivables count — under 90 days, not from an affiliate, not cross-aged, not from a concentrated or foreign or government obligor. Then you take dilution reserves for credit notes, returns and discounts. A 15 percent dilution rate can cut effective availability far below the headline rate.
    2. Inventory: typically 50 to 65 percent of cost, or an advance rate against net orderly liquidation value from a third-party appraiser. Raw materials and finished goods are worth more than work in progress, which is often worth nothing. Perishable, fashion-dated and bespoke inventory gets haircut hard, and consignment or landed-in-transit inventory has title issues.
    3. Machinery and equipment: advance rate against a forced-liquidation appraisal, often 70 to 80 percent of that value, which itself may be a fraction of book. Generic assets with a resale market — trucks, standard CNC machines — hold value; purpose-built process equipment does not.
    4. Real estate: often 50 to 65 percent of appraised value, amortising, and slow to realise. Environmental liability is the specific nuance, because a contaminated site can be worth less than zero to a lender who takes title.
    5. Cross-cutting nuances that matter more than the advance rates: perfection of the security interest, priority against purchase money security interests and landlord or warehouseman liens, the ability to control the cash through a dominion of funds arrangement, and field examinations plus appraisals at least annually.
    6. A worked number: 100 of gross receivables with 10 ineligible and 10 percent dilution reserve gives roughly 90 eligible less 9 reserve, so 81, times an 85 percent advance rate equals about 69 of availability. The headline 85 percent became an effective 69 percent.

    Where candidates lose it

    Quoting advance rates with no eligibility or dilution discussion. Availability is set by the eligibility criteria and the reserves, not by the headline percentages, and any ABL lender will test that. Also, do not forget the field exam and appraisal cadence — ABL is a monitoring business.

    Expect next

    • How would you size availability on 100 of gross receivables?
    • What is a springing fixed charge coverage test?
    • Which inventory would you refuse to lend against?

    Reported by candidates at Truist Securities (Asset Finance, Atlanta, 2023). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

Firm tags come from public, anonymous candidate reports on Wall Street Oasis: strong signal, not sworn testimony. Firms are named as the places a question was reported, not as partners of Fin Maverick. Answers are written for this page to show how to think out loud; they are not scripts to recite.

Puzzles

100 Debt Capital Markets puzzles, solved step by step

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Case studies

100 Debt Capital Markets case studies, worked step by step

A business, its numbers and a task, as in an assessment day or a case round. Work it on paper, then open the solution one step at a time.

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