Case 032Structured products and client solutionsCore
A client is offered a one-year Rs 10 lakh note on Garudmachi Pharma at Rs 800 paying a 12% coupon, with principal returned in shares at Rs 800 if the stock finishes below that. What is the client really holding, and what does it get at 900, 760 and 560?
1The situation
A relationship manager shows a wealth client a one-year note linked to Garudmachi Pharma, which trades at Rs 800. The client invests Rs 10 lakh and receives a 12% coupon, Rs 1,20,000, at maturity whatever happens. If Garudmachi closes at or above Rs 800 on the final day, the Rs 10 lakh comes back in cash. If it closes below, the client instead receives 1250 shares, the Rs 10 lakh divided by Rs 800, worth whatever the stock is then.
One-year deposit rates are about 7%, an illustrative figure for this case. The client asks why the coupon is so much higher than a deposit.
2Your task
Decompose the note into its parts, explain where the extra coupon comes from, and show the client's rupee result and return at a final price of 900, 760 and 560.
Quick check
Garudmachi finishes at Rs 560, 30% below the strike. Including the coupon, where does the client end up?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
The client holds a one-year deposit plus a written put on 1250 Garudmachi shares struck at Rs 800, and the extra coupon is the put premium. At 900 the client gets Rs 11,20,000, up 12%; at 760 it gets 1250 shares plus the coupon, Rs 10,70,000, up 7%; at 560 it gets Rs 8,20,000, down 18%. The upside is capped at the coupon and the downside is the stock's, less the coupon.
Step 1What is the client actually holding?
Take the note apart the way you would take apart a combo meal to see what each item costs. The Rs 10 lakh earns a 12% coupon when a deposit pays about 7%, so Rs 70,000 of the Rs 1,20,000 is deposit interest and Rs 50,000 is something else. That something else is the premium on a put optionThe right to sell a share at a fixed price. The holder gains when the share falls below that price; the writer, here the client, bears the fall. the client has written: the issuer has the right to hand the client 1250 shares at Rs 800 each, and it will use that right exactly when the shares are worth less than Rs 800. Rs 50,000 on 1250 shares is about Rs 40 a share, which is the kind of premium a one-year at-the-money put on a mid-volatility stock commands; the exact split depends on the rate and volatility the issuer used.
Step 2What does the client get at each price?
Work the three cases in the same order each time: principal first, then add the coupon, then compare with Rs 10 lakh. At 900 the stock is above the strike, so the principal is Rs 10 lakh in cash and the total is Rs 11,20,000, a 12% return, while the stock itself made 12.5%. At 760 the stock is below the strike, so the client receives 1250 shares worth Rs 9,50,000, plus the coupon, Rs 10,70,000, up 7% while the stock fell 5%. At 560 the shares are worth Rs 7,00,000, plus the coupon, Rs 8,20,000, down 18% while the stock fell 30%. The coupon shifts every outcome up by 12 points; it does not change the shape.
| Final price | Principal returned | Coupon | Total | Note return | Stock return |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Rs 900 | Rs 10,00,000 cash | Rs 1,20,000 | Rs 11,20,000 | +12% | +12% |
| Rs 760 | 1250 shares, Rs 9,50,000 | Rs 1,20,000 | Rs 10,70,000 | +7% | -5% |
| Rs 560 | 1250 shares, Rs 7,00,000 | Rs 1,20,000 | Rs 8,20,000 | -18% | -30% |
Step 3What should the client be told?
Three plain sentences. The most the client can make is 12%, however well Garudmachi does. The client loses money if the stock finishes below Rs 704, which is 12% down, and below that it loses rupee for rupee with the stock. And the client is being paid about Rs 40 a share to take the fall in a single pharma stock, which is a question about Garudmachi's approval pipeline and volatility, not about interest rates. A client who would be happy owning 1250 Garudmachi shares at Rs 800 is the right buyer; a client who thinks of this as a deposit is not. State the limitation: the decomposition ignores the issuer's own credit, which is the other risk a note carries and the one a deposit at a bank does not, and it assumes the issuer priced the put fairly, which the client cannot check without a model.
Where candidates lose it
The common loss is reading the 12% as a return. It is the ceiling, and most of the extra over a deposit is premium for a put the client has sold without being told it has sold anything.
The second is forgetting the coupon at 560 and reporting the client down 30%. The coupon is paid in every case, so the fall is 18%; getting that detail right shows the interviewer you can hold both parts of the structure in your head at once.
What the interviewer asks next
- The issuer adds a barrier: shares are delivered only if the stock ever trades below Rs 600 during the year. What has the client now sold, and should the coupon be higher or lower?
- Garudmachi's volatility doubles the week before the note is sold. What happens to the coupon the issuer can offer?
- How would you build the same payoff yourself with a deposit and an exchange-traded put, and what would be different?
- The note is issued by a mid-sized finance company rather than a bank. What extra risk does the client carry?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
