Case 042Volatility tradingCore
Agasthya Capital buys a variance swap with vega notional of Rs 10 lakh at a strike of 20. What is the variance notional, what is the P&L if realised volatility is 24, and if it is 16? Why is the payoff not symmetric?
1The situation
Agasthya Capital thinks the Satpura 50 index will be more volatile over the next three months than option prices imply. Rather than buy options and delta hedge them every day, it buys a three-month variance swap from a dealer. The strike is 20, quoted in volatility points, and the size is set as a vega notional of Rs 10 lakh: roughly what the position makes or loses for each point that realised volatility ends away from 20.
At expiry the swap pays the variance notional times the difference between realised variance, the annualised average of squared daily returns, and the strike squared. The portfolio manager wants the payoff in two outcomes, realised volatility of 24 and of 16, and an explanation for the client of why the two are not mirror images.
2Your task
Convert vega notional to variance notional, compute the P&L in both outcomes, and explain the asymmetry.
Quick check
Realised volatility ends at 24, four points above the strike. Agasthya makes:
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
Variance notional is Rs 25,000 per variance point; Agasthya makes Rs 44 lakh at 24 and loses Rs 36 lakh at 16. The vega notional, Rs 10 lakh a point, is only the slope at the strike. The swap pays on the square of volatility, so each point above 20 is worth more than the last and each point below worth less, which is why the payoff is convex and the buyer gains more on a four-point rise than it loses on a four-point fall.
Step 1How does vega notional become variance notional?
The trade is quoted in volatility because people think in volatility, but it pays in variance because variance is what a portfolio of options can replicate. The variance notional is set so that, near the strike, one point of volatility is worth the vega notional: since 20 squared changes by about 2 times 20, or 40, variance points when volatility moves by one, variance notional is Rs 10 lakh divided by 40, Rs 25,000 per variance point. At the strike the two descriptions agree. Away from it they do not, and that is the rest of the case.
| N_{\text{vega}} | vega notional, Rs 10 lakh per volatility point |
| K | strike, 20 volatility points |
| \sigma_R | realised volatility over the life, in points |
| N_{\text{var}} | variance notional, Rs 25,000 per variance point |
Step 2What does it pay at 24 and at 16?
Square, subtract, multiply. At 24, realised variance is 576 against 400, so Agasthya receives 176 times Rs 25,000, Rs 44 lakh; at 16, realised variance is 256 against 400, so it pays 144 times Rs 25,000, Rs 36 lakh. Both outcomes are four volatility points from the strike, and a volatility swapA swap that pays the vega notional times realised volatility less the strike, linear in volatility. Harder for dealers to hedge than a variance swap, so less common. would have paid plus and minus Rs 40 lakh. The variance swap pays Rs 4 lakh more on the way up and Rs 4 lakh less on the way down.
Step 3Why is the payoff not symmetric, and who pays for that?
Think of the area of a square plot. Add a metre to each side of a 20 metre plot and the area grows by 41 square metres; take a metre off and it shrinks by 39. Squares grow faster on the way up. The swap pays on the square of volatility, so the buyer is long convexityHere, the curvature of the payoff in volatility: the gain from a rise exceeds the loss from an equal fall.: every extra point of volatility pays more than the one before, and the asymmetry widens the further realised volatility moves. That convexity is not free. Dealers know it, so variance swap strikes sit above the at-the-money implied volatility of the same maturity, often by a point or more, partly because the replicating portfolio includes far out-of-the-money puts, which trade at higher implied volatility, and partly as payment for the convexity itself. A buyer who expects volatility of 22 should not buy at a strike of 22 and expect to break even.
| Realised volatility | Realised variance | Less strike squared, 400 | P&L, Rs lakh | Volatility swap, Rs lakh |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 12 | 144 | -256 | -64.0 | -80 |
| 16 | 256 | -144 | -36.0 | -40 |
| 20 | 400 | +0 | +0.0 | +0 |
| 24 | 576 | +176 | +44.0 | +40 |
| 28 | 784 | +384 | +96.0 | +80 |
| 36 | 1296 | +896 | +224.0 | +160 |
State the limits for the client. The upside in a crash is large: at a realised volatility of 36 the swap pays Rs 224 lakh, and the dealer on the other side knows this, which is why single-stock variance swaps usually carry a cap, commonly two and a half times the strike, and index swaps sometimes do. The realised number depends on the exact return series in the contract, daily closes, with the method of annualising fixed in the confirmation; a missed day or a market closure can move it. And because the swap is a pure bet on realised against implied, a fund that buys it is paid only if volatility actually turns up, not if the market merely becomes nervous; a rise in implied volatility before expiry helps only the mark.
Where candidates lose it
The common loss is multiplying four points by Rs 10 lakh and answering Rs 40 lakh both ways. Vega notional is a sizing convention, true only at the strike; the contract pays on variance, and the candidate has to convert to Rs 25,000 per variance point to get Rs 44 lakh and minus Rs 36 lakh.
The second is calling the asymmetry a free gift to the buyer. Convexity is priced into the strike, which sits above at-the-money implied volatility, and a candidate who notices that the buyer pays for the curve has understood why dealers quote variance at all.
What the interviewer asks next
- Why can a dealer hedge a variance swap with a strip of options but not a volatility swap?
- Where would you expect the variance swap strike to sit relative to three-month at-the-money implied volatility, and why?
- The index has a 25% one-day crash on day 40 and is quiet otherwise. Roughly what does that one day add to realised variance?
- How would a cap at two and a half times the strike change the buyer's payoff at a realised volatility of 60?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
