Case 069Currency derivatives and corporate FX hedgingWarm up
An exporter has sold USD 20 million forward at an average of 83.10. Forwards for the same dates are now 85.00, and the board sees a mark-to-market loss. Compute it, and explain why it is not the whole story.
1The situation
Chinnar Garments exports knitwear to European and American retailers and invoices in dollars. Over the past quarter its treasurer sold USD 20 million forward, for delivery over the next six months, at an average rate of 83.10 rupees per dollar. The company had costed these orders at a budget rate of 82.50.
The rupee has since weakened, and forwards for the same delivery dates now trade at 85.00. The bank's quarterly statement shows a mark-to-market loss on the contracts, and a board member asks why the company is losing money on its hedges and whether it should stop hedging.
2Your task
Compute the mark-to-market loss, show what has happened to the value of the export receivables over the same period, and explain to the board what the loss does and does not mean.
Quick check
Before working it: compared with not having hedged, the company is:
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
The forwards show a loss of about Rs 3.8 crore, USD 20 million times 1.90, but the export receivables they cover are worth the same Rs 3.8 crore more at the new rate. Together the company receives Rs 166.2 crore, exactly what 83.10 promised and Rs 1.2 crore above the budget rate of 82.50. The loss is upside given up for certainty. It becomes a real loss only if the exports behind the forwards fail to arrive.
Step 1What is the mark-to-market loss?
The company has promised to sell USD 20 million at 83.10. If it had to replace those contracts today, it could sell the same dollars at 85.00, so each dollar is promised 1.90 rupees too cheaply. USD 20 million times 1.90 is Rs 3.8 crore, the amount the bank's statement shows as a loss. Strictly the bank will discount that to today, because the rupees change hands over the next six months; at 7% over an average of four months it would show about Rs 3.71 crore, which does not change the argument.
Step 2Why is that only half of the picture?
Think of a farmer who agreed in spring to sell his wheat at a fixed price. At harvest the market price is higher, and his neighbour sells for more. The farmer has not lost money; he has the price he planned for, and his wheat is worth more than he is being paid for it. Chinnar's USD 20 million of receivables is worth Rs 170.0 crore at 85.00, Rs 3.8 crore more than at 83.10; the forward loss and the receivable gain cancel, and the company receives Rs 166.2 crore either way. The statement shows one side of a two-sided position because the receivables are not marked to market in the same report.
| Rs crore | Hedged at 83.10 | Unhedged at 85.00 |
|---|---|---|
| Rupee value of USD 20 million of exports | 170.0 | 170.0 |
| Gain or loss on forwards | (3.8) | 0 |
| Rupees received | 166.2 | 170.0 |
| Against the budget rate of 82.50 | +1.2 | +5.0 |
Step 3When does the mark-to-market loss become a real loss?
When there are no dollars behind the contracts. If a buyer cancels USD 5 million of orders, the company still has to deliver USD 5 million at 83.10 and must buy those dollars at around 85.00, a real loss of about Rs 0.95 crore with no offsetting export. That is the honest risk in the board member's question, and it argues for hedging only orders that are firm, not for stopping hedging. Two practical points belong in the answer too. The bank may ask for collateral or use up part of the company's credit line as the loss grows, which is a cash and liquidity matter even though the economics net out. And whether the loss and the receivable gain are reported together in the accounts depends on hedge accounting rules and documentation, which the company should confirm with its auditors.
The answer to the board is short. The hedge locked a rate above budget, the rupee moved the other way, and the company gave up the extra it would have earned unhedged; that is the price of the certainty it chose, and the same hedge would have shown a gain had the rupee strengthened instead. A hedging policy judged on whether each quarter's hedge beat the market is a speculation policy under another name.
Where candidates lose it
Candidates compute the Rs 3.8 crore and agree that the hedge lost money, which is exactly what the board member wants confirmed. The interviewer wants the receivable on the other side named, and the net shown.
The second miss is saying the hedge can never lose. It can, when the exports it covered do not happen, and naming that case is what turns a definition into an answer.
What the interviewer asks next
- The rupee had strengthened to 81.50 instead. What would the board have seen, and would that have been a reason to hedge more?
- How should the treasurer decide what share of expected exports to hedge?
- The bank asks for Rs 2 crore of margin against the forwards. Where does that cash come from, and is it a cost?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
