Case 085Credit derivatives and counterparty riskCore
An importer with large dollar debts sold your bank USD 50 million one year forward at 84. The rupee falls to 92. What does the client owe, why is that exposure likely to go bad at exactly that moment, and how do you protect the bank?
1The situation
Pavagad Refining imports crude and carries USD 300 million of dollar borrowings at 7% against EBITDA of Rs 500 crore. A year ago, with spot near 83 and the one-year forward at 84, its treasurer sold USD 50 million forward to your bank at 84, intending to earn the forward premium and expecting a stable rupee. The trade was booked as an uncollateralised forward on the bank's credit line to the client.
The rupee has since fallen to 92 per dollar, and the forward matures next month. The credit risk head asks you to size the exposure, explain why it is the worst kind, and propose protection for the next such trade.
2Your task
How much does Pavagad owe on the forward at 92, why is this wrong-way risk, and what would you change?
Quick check
Before computing: at 92, who owes whom on a forward where the client sells dollars at 84?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
Pavagad owes the bank about Rs 40 crore, and the exposure is wrong-way because the move that creates it is the move that weakens the client. At 92 the client must deliver USD 50 million worth Rs 460 crore for Rs 420 crore. At the same time its USD 300 million of debt has grown by Rs 240 crore in rupee terms and its interest bill by Rs 17 crore. Protect the next trade with a collateral agreement, a line sized for the correlation, and a check that the forward hedges an exposure rather than adding one.
Step 1How big is the claim, and which way does it point?
Start with the mechanics, because the direction is where people slip. Pavagad sold dollars forward: it promised to deliver USD 50 million and receive Rs 84 for each. At 92 the dollars it must deliver are worth Rs 460 crore and it receives Rs 420 crore, so the forward is a Rs 40 crore liability for the client and a Rs 40 crore claim for the bank. Had the rupee strengthened to 80 the signs would flip and the bank would owe Rs 20 crore. A forward is a two-way promise, and the bank's credit exposure is whichever side it happens to be owed, which is why it is not fixed at inception.
Step 2Why is this the worst kind of exposure?
Lending an umbrella to a neighbour is fine; lending it on condition that he returns it only when it rains is not, because the day you need it back is the day he will not give it up. Wrong-way riskCredit exposure that grows at the same time as the counterparty becomes more likely to default, because both are driven by the same market move. is exposure that rises precisely when the counterparty's ability to pay falls, and a dollar borrower selling dollars forward is the textbook case. The rupee's fall to 92 does three things to Pavagad at once: it creates the Rs 40 crore forward loss, it lifts the rupee value of its USD 300 million debt from Rs 2,520 crore to Rs 2,760 crore, and it raises its dollar interest and import costs. Net debt to EBITDA, counting the forward, goes from about 5.0 times to 5.6 times. The bank's claim is largest at the moment the client's lenders are already nervous.
| Rupees per dollar | Forward owed to bank, Rs crore | Dollar debt in Rs crore | Dollar interest, Rs crore | Net debt / EBITDA |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 80 | -20 | 2,400 | 168 | 4.8x |
| 84 | +0 | 2,520 | 176 | 5.0x |
| 88 | +20 | 2,640 | 185 | 5.3x |
| 92 | +40 | 2,760 | 193 | 5.6x |
Step 3How would you protect the bank next time?
Four changes, in the order a credit committee would take them. First, a collateral agreement with daily variation margin and a threshold sized to the client's unsecured capacity, so the claim is funded as it grows rather than discovered at maturity. Second, a credit line for the trade that uses a stressed exposure, say the loss at a rupee move two standard deviations against the client, and adds a wrong-way charge rather than treating the forward as a normal receivable. Third, and most important, ask what the forward hedges: an importer selling dollars forward is adding to its dollar exposure, not reducing it, and a trade that doubles a client's existing risk should be priced and limited as a position, not a hedge. The rules on forwards being backed by an underlying exposure should be confirmed before any such trade. Fourth, offer the structure that fits: buying dollars forward, or a bought option, which would have paid the client at 92. The limit of all this is that collateral only helps if the client has liquid assets to post, and a refiner with rising import bills may not; the real protection is the line size.
Where candidates lose it
The common loss is getting the direction wrong: assuming the client bought dollars forward because it is an importer, and concluding the bank owes the client at 92. Read the trade, not the client's label.
The second is sizing the credit risk at the expected exposure, as for an ordinary receivable. For wrong-way trades the exposure and the default probability move together, so the expected loss is far higher than the product of the two averages.
What the interviewer asks next
- Pavagad asks to roll the forward to next year rather than settle. What does that do to the bank's exposure and its credit risk?
- How would a credit valuation adjustment on this forward differ from one on the same trade with an exporter?
- The client proposes to post its inventory as collateral. What is wrong with that for this trade?
- If the rupee had strengthened to 78, who carries the risk, and is that right-way or wrong-way?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
