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Derivatives Foundation puzzles, solved step by step

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All topicsMental maths and estimation9Random walks and Markov chains7Conditional probability and Bayes7Volatility and correlation7Option pricing intuition7Expected value and optimal stopping10Market making11Option payoffs and no-arbitrage10Probability and counting11Distributions and statistics8Games and logic8Betting and sizing5
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  1. 050You can buy the 90 call, sell the 110 call, buy the 110 put and sell the 90 put, all European and expiring in one year, for a net 19.20. What does the position pay at expiry, what interest rate does it imply, and when is that attractive?Option payoffs and no-arbitrageHardMarket makingRates derivatives

    Try it first

    What does the four-leg position pay at expiry?

    Show the worked solution

    It pays exactly 20 at any stock price, so 19.20 today implies a one-year rate of 20/19.20 - 1, about 4.17%. The 90 call and short 90 put make a long forward at 90; the short 110 call and long 110 put make a short forward at 110. The stock cancels and 110 - 90 = 20 is left. Buying the box is lending at 4.17% and selling it is borrowing at that rate, so it suits a lender whose other return is lower, or a borrower whose funding costs more.

    Why does the payoff not depend on the stock?

    Agree to buy a scooter from one friend for 90 and to sell it to another for 110, both next year, and you will make 20 whatever scooters cost by then. The box is the same pair of agreements: long the 90 call and short the 90 put is a promise to buy at 90, and short the 110 call and long the 110 put is a promise to sell at 110, so the stock comes in and goes out and only the gap between the strikes, 20, is left. Seen as spreads, the call spread pays from 0 below 90 up to 20 above 110, and the put spread pays the mirror image, 20 below 90 down to 0 above 110. Wherever the stock ends, the two add to 20.

    A box pays 20 whatever the stock does, so its price is a discount factor051015208090100110120stock at expirypayoffbox: 20 everywherecost 19.20call spreadlong 90, short 110put spreadlong 110, short 90pay 19.20todayget 20.00in one yearimplied rate4.17%4.08%continuousBuying the box lends at 4.17%; selling it borrows at 4.17%. Compare with your own rate
    The long call spread rises from 0 to 20 between 90 and 110 while the long put spread falls from 20 to 0 over the same range, so their sum is a flat 20 at every stock price, and paying 19.20 for it is lending at 4.17%.

    How do you turn the price into a rate?

    You pay 19.20 today and receive 20.00 in a year with no market risk, so it is a deposit. The simple rate is 20 / 19.20 - 1 = 4.17%, and the continuously compounded rate is ln(20 / 19.20) = 4.08%. A box is a zero-coupon bond built from options, and its price is the strike gap times the discount factor, so any box that trades away from the market's interest rate is mispriced. Prices consistent with this rate, for an illustrative stock at 100 with 20% volatility, are a 90 call at 16.11, a 110 call at 5.69, a 110 put at 11.29 and a 90 put at 2.51: 16.11 - 5.69 + 11.29 - 2.51 = 19.20. Volatility does not enter the box price at all, because every volatility effect in the calls is cancelled by the puts.

    The relationship
    (S−90)+−(90−S)+⏟S−90  −  [(S−110)+−(110−S)+]⏟S−110=20,r=2019.20−1=4.17%\underbrace{(S - 90)^+ - (90 - S)^+}_{S - 90} \; - \; \underbrace{\big[(S - 110)^+ - (110 - S)^+\big]}_{S - 110} = 20, \qquad r = \frac{20}{19.20} - 1 = 4.17\%
    (S - K)+a call payoff struck at K
    (K - S)+a put payoff struck at K
    call minus put at the same strikea forward to buy at that strike, paying S - K
    rthe simple one-year rate implied by paying 19.20 for 20
    What it says in wordsA long forward at 90 and a short forward at 110 leave a fixed 20, and its price gives the interest rate.

    When is it attractive, and what can go wrong?

    Compare 4.17% with your own rates. If cash would otherwise earn 3.5%, buying the box lends at a better rate: 19.20 at 3.5% grows to only 19.87, against 20 from the box. If your funding costs 5%, selling the box borrows more cheaply: you receive 19.20 today and owe 20, while 20 owed at 5% would have raised only 19.05. Whether a box is cheap or dear is never a property of the box alone; it depends on the rate you can otherwise lend or borrow at, which is why boxes are a funding trade. The risks to name are practical. American options can be exercised early, which breaks the box, so use European index options. Four bid-offer spreads and fees can eat the 0.80 of interest. And the counterparty, or the clearing house, must still be there in a year.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common loss is analysing the four legs as a view on the stock, describing a bull call spread and a bear put spread and forgetting to add them. Add them: the stock cancels and the position is a loan.

    The second is calling a box at 19.20 an arbitrage on its own. It is only cheap or dear against a rate, so say which rate you are comparing with, your deposit rate if you buy and your funding rate if you sell.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The same box trades at 19.80. What rate does that imply, and who would sell it?
    • Why does an American-style box carry early-exercise risk, and which leg is the danger?
    • Build a box with strikes 95 and 105. What should it cost at the same rate?
    • How is a box related to put-call parity at each strike?
  2. 078Three calls on the same stock and expiry trade at: strike 90 for 14, strike 100 for 8, strike 110 for 1. Is there an arbitrage? Build it.Option payoffs and no-arbitrageHardMarket makingVolatility trading

    Try it first

    Which relationship between the three prices should you test first?

    Show the worked solution

    Yes. Buy the 90 call, sell two 100 calls, buy the 110 call, and you are paid 1 to own a payoff that is never below zero. The butterfly costs 14 - 16 + 1 = -1, so you receive 1 today. At expiry it pays nothing below 90, rises to 10 at 100 and falls to nothing above 110, never negative. Call prices must be convex in strike: the 100 call cannot exceed (14 + 1)/2 = 7.5, and it trades at 8.

    Where does the 7.5 come from?

    Picture three houses on one street at 90, 100 and 110 square metres, priced at 14, 8 and 1. The middle house should be worth no more than the average of its neighbours if each extra metre is worth less than the last; if it is priced above the average, you sell it and buy the two neighbours. A call's price falls as the strike rises, and it falls at a decreasing rate, so the price at the middle strike must sit on or below the straight line between its neighbours. The line from 14 at 90 to 1 at 110 passes through 7.5 at 100. The market says 8. That half point is the mispricing.

    You are paid 1 to own a payoff that is never below zero7080901001101201300510-1stock price at expirypayoff of long 90, short two 100, long 110price paid: -1 (you receive 1)peak 10 at 100shaded: never below 190100110051015strikecall price against strikechord: 7.51418 sits above the chord
    The butterfly of long one 90 call, short two 100 calls and long one 110 call pays nothing below 90, peaks at 10 at a stock price of 100 and pays nothing above 110, and because it costs minus 1 the whole payoff sits at least 1 above the price paid, while on the right the quoted 8 for the 100 call sits above the 7.5 chord between the 90 and 110 calls, which breaks convexity.

    How do you prove the payoff is never negative?

    Walk the stock price up. Below 90 nothing is in the money, payoff zero. Between 90 and 100 only the 90 call pays, so the payoff is the stock price minus 90, rising to 10. Between 100 and 110 the two short 100 calls start paying out, and the slope turns to 1 - 2 = -1, so the payoff falls from 10 back to zero at 110. Above 110 the long 110 call kicks in and the slope is 1 - 2 + 1 = 0: flat at zero. The payoff is zero or positive everywhere, you were paid 1 to hold it, so you have a riskless profit of at least 1 and up to 11.

    The relationship
    C(100)≤12 [C(90)+C(110)]=12(14+1)=7.5<8C(100) \le \tfrac{1}{2}\,[C(90) + C(110)] = \tfrac{1}{2}(14 + 1) = 7.5 < 8
    C(K)the price of the call struck at K
    7.5the midpoint of the chord between the outer strikes
    8the quoted middle price, half a point too high
    What it says in wordsWith equally spaced strikes, the middle call can never cost more than the average of the outer two, because the butterfly that tests it can only pay out zero or more.

    Check the other bounds too, out loud, so the interviewer sees you are not pattern matching. A call spread can never be worth more than the gap between its strikes: the 90/100 spread costs 6 and the 100/110 spread costs 7, both under 10, so those pass. Prices fall as strike rises: 14, 8, 1, pass. Only convexity fails. The limitation: in a real screen you trade at bids and offers, not mids, and a half point of theoretical edge can vanish inside the spread. The structure is an arbitrage at these prices; whether you can execute it is a separate question.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates test the wrong bound. They check that each call is worth more than its intrinsic value, or that a spread is worth less than the strike gap, find both fine, and declare no arbitrage. Convexity is the bound that catches a dear middle strike, and it is the one most people forget.

    The second loss is building the butterfly the wrong way round. If you sell the wings and buy the middle you pay 1 to hold a payoff that is zero or negative. Say which leg is long before you say the price.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Reprice the 100 call so there is no arbitrage. What is the highest price it can take?
    • If the strikes were 90, 100 and 120, how would you weight the legs?
    • Why does the same convexity rule hold for puts?
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