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Derivatives Foundation interview preparation

The full derivatives syllabus from no-arbitrage pricing through the Greeks, the volatility surface, swaps, CDS and clearing, plus the Indian index-options market. Every question is either traced to a named firm from a public candidate report, or tagged at desk level when we could not trace it - we do not invent attributions.

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Question bank

100 questions, mapped to the firms that asked them

Questions
100
Traced to a firm
29
Firms
19
Updated
September 2026
Asked at
All firmsMSMorgan Stanley4Nomura4Akuna Capital2Amundi2HSBC2PIMCO2Bank of America1Barclays1Citadel1DRW1Goldman Sachs1Jane Street1Millennium Management1Mizuho1Old Mission Capital1RCRBC Capital Markets1Scotiabank1UBS1Wells Fargo Securities1
Topic
All topicsForwards and futures10Options basics8Option pricing7The Greeks10Volatility7Option strategies9Swaps and rates7Credit derivatives4Market structure and clearing6Indian derivatives8Trading and markets9Brainteasers6Fit9
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Type
AnyTechnicalCaseMarket viewBrainteaserFit
Showing 1–4 of 4 · filtered from 100Clear filters
  1. 031You have sold a call and you are delta hedging it. Walk me through what you actually do over the option's life.The GreeksIntermediatetechnicalMarket makingEquity derivatives

    Say this

    You buy delta shares against the short call and rebalance as spot moves. Because you are short gamma, every rebalance means buying higher and selling lower, so you lose money on the hedge and you are paid theta to compensate. Over the life, your profit is the premium you collected less what the hedging actually cost you.

    Then walk it

    1. Day one: sell the 100-strike call at, say, 4.00 with a 0.5 delta, so buy 50 shares per contract. You are locally flat.
    2. Stock rises to 105. Delta is now 0.65, so you buy 15 more shares at 105. Stock falls back to 100, delta is 0.5, so you sell 15 shares at 100. You have just bought at 105 and sold at 100. That loss is what being short gamma means, and it is unavoidable.
    3. Do that repeatedly and the total hedging loss is roughly proportional to the realised variance of the stock. You keep money only if the stock realises less volatility than the 20-ish implied you sold at.
    4. So the profit and loss decomposition is clean: premium received, minus the realised variance cost, plus or minus the error from hedging discretely rather than continuously, minus bid-offer and financing on the share position.
    5. How often to rebalance is a real decision, not a technicality. Hedge too often and transaction costs eat you; too rarely and you run naked gamma between hedges. Desks usually hedge on a delta band — rebalance when delta moves more than some threshold — rather than on a clock.
    6. The failure mode to state: a gap. If the stock jumps from 100 to 130 overnight on a takeover, no rebalancing schedule saves you, because you were hedged for the 0.65 delta and you needed 1.0. Delta hedging manages diffusion risk, not jump risk, and that is exactly the assumption Black-Scholes makes and reality does not.

    Where candidates lose it

    Describing the mechanics without ever stating that the hedge loses money. Short gamma means the rebalancing is systematically adverse, and the theta you collect is the payment for it. If your answer does not contain 'buy high, sell low', you have not understood the trade.

    Expect next

    • How often would you rebalance, and what decides it?
    • Decompose your final profit and loss into its pieces.
    • The stock gaps 30 percent overnight. What happens to you?
  2. 032You are long a one-month at-the-money straddle at 20 volatility. Under what conditions do you make money?The GreeksHardtechnicalVolatility tradingProp trading firms

    Say this

    If you delta hedge it, you make money when realised volatility over the month exceeds 20. If you do not hedge it, you make money only if the stock finishes far enough from the strike to cover the combined premium, which is a much harder bar. Those are two completely different trades and the distinction is the answer.

    Then walk it

    1. Unhedged: you paid, say, 4.6 percent of spot for the straddle, so the stock must move more than 4.6 percent in either direction by expiry. Direction does not matter, distance does — and crucially, the path does not help you at all.
    2. Hedged: you rebalance delta daily and harvest the moves. Now the path is everything. A stock that oscillates 2 percent a day and finishes flat pays you handsomely while the unhedged straddle expires worthless.
    3. The break-even in the hedged case is the realised-versus-implied comparison. Twenty percent annualised is about 1.25 percent a day. If the stock is genuinely moving more than that, gamma harvesting beats the theta you bleed.
    4. Arithmetic to make it concrete: 20 volatility on a 30-day option costs roughly 20 times root of 30 over 365, about 5.7 percent of spot for the straddle at a 0.8 scaling — call it 4.5 to 5 percent. So you need about a 5 percent move unhedged, or sustained daily moves above 1.25 percent hedged.
    5. Two things can still beat you even if you are right about realised volatility. Implied volatility can fall, which hits your vega mark immediately, and the realised moves can arrive as one gap rather than as daily oscillation — a gap gives you the payoff once rather than repeatedly.
    6. The honest limitation: long gamma is not a free option on chaos. You pay theta every day, and in a market that grinds quietly for three weeks and then explodes on day 25, you may have been stopped out of the position before the payoff arrives. Sizing and horizon matter as much as the volatility view.

    Where candidates lose it

    Answering only the unhedged version — 'the stock has to move more than the premium'. Any interviewer on a volatility desk is testing whether you know the hedged straddle is a bet on realised variance and the unhedged one is a bet on the terminal price. Say both, and say which one you meant.

    Expect next

    • What if the stock moves 5 percent but in one overnight gap?
    • You were right about realised volatility and still lost money. How?
    • Would you rather own the straddle or a variance swap for this view?
  3. 033What is pin risk, and how do you manage a large position into expiry?The GreeksHardsuperdayMarket makingEquity derivatives

    Say this

    Pin risk is the risk that the underlying closes almost exactly at your strike, so you do not know whether you will be assigned. You go into the weekend not knowing whether you are flat or hugely long or short stock, and by the time you find out, the market has moved. It is a settlement risk, not a pricing risk.

    Then walk it

    1. The mechanism: you are short 1,000 at-the-money calls and the stock settles at the strike. If they are exercised you are short 100,000 shares; if not you are flat. You cannot hedge a position you do not know you have.
    2. Gamma explodes into expiry for at-the-money options, so your delta swings between near zero and near one on tiny price moves. The hedge you put on at 3:29 can be completely wrong at 3:30.
    3. How desks manage it: reduce the at-the-money position before the last hour, close out rather than let it go to assignment, and avoid being short large size at a strike where open interest is concentrated.
    4. Cash settlement solves it. Indian index options — Nifty and Bank Nifty — are cash-settled on a weighted average of the last half hour, so there is no assignment ambiguity. But cash settlement creates a different problem: settlement-price manipulation risk, which is exactly why SEBI moved to a VWAP of the closing period rather than a closing print.
    5. That closing-period mechanic is why you see the volume spike into the last thirty minutes on expiry day in India. Large positions need to hedge against the same average that determines their settlement.
    6. The broader lesson to volunteer: pin risk is one of a family of expiry-day operational risks — assignment, settlement price, and the exercise cut-off being after the market closes so you can be assigned on news that broke post-close. These are the risks that lose money on well-hedged books, and they are the reason expiry-day process discipline exists.

    Where candidates lose it

    Explaining pin risk as a pricing phenomenon. It is an operational and settlement risk, and the answer should include what you do about it — reduce size, close rather than assign, and know whether your contract is cash or physically settled. Naming the Indian cash-settlement mechanic shows local knowledge.

    Expect next

    • How does cash settlement change the problem, and what new problem does it create?
    • Why does volume spike in the last half hour of an Indian expiry day?
    • You are assigned on news that broke after the close. What is your exposure?
  4. 035You have just taken over a derivatives book from someone who left suddenly. What do you look at, in what order?The GreeksIntermediatesuperdayEquity derivativesRisk management

    Say this

    Directional exposure first, then convexity, then the things that cannot be hedged. Concretely: net delta, then gamma and where it is concentrated by strike and expiry, then vega bucketed by maturity, then the operational calendar — expiries, ex-dividend dates, barriers and any physically settled contract.

    Then walk it

    1. Net delta first, because it is the biggest and the easiest to neutralise. I want to be able to say in one number how much I make or lose on a 1 percent market move, and I would hedge any large residual with futures within the hour.
    2. Then gamma, and not just the total — where it sits. A book that is gamma-flat overall but long gamma at 24,000 and short at 25,000 is a different animal from a genuinely flat one, and the strike concentration tells you where the pain is.
    3. Then vega by expiry bucket. A summed vega number hides term structure risk. I want front month, second month, and beyond separately, because they do not move together.
    4. Then the calendar risks, which is where inherited books actually blow up: what expires this week, what has a barrier near spot, which names go ex-dividend, and whether anything settles physically rather than in cash.
    5. Then the stress grid. Profit and loss under spot down 10 and volatility up 10, spot down 20 and volatility up 25, and a single-name gap. Greeks are local; the grid is what tells me if there is a hole.
    6. And the unglamorous parts, said out loud because they are what catch people: does the position in the risk system reconcile with the clearing house, is there any trade with a manual mark, and what are the margin requirements if the market moves against me. I would rather find an unreconciled position on day one than on the day it matters.

    Where candidates lose it

    Listing all the Greeks in textbook order with no prioritisation. The question is about triage under uncertainty. Lead with 'hedge the delta first because it is the biggest and cheapest to fix', and include the operational checks — reconciliation and the expiry calendar — which is what someone who has actually held a book says.

    Expect next

    • What would you hedge in the first hour, and what would you leave?
    • Why does bucketing vega by expiry matter?
    • What operational risk would worry you most on a book you have not seen before?

Firm tags come from public, anonymous candidate reports on Wall Street Oasis: strong signal, not sworn testimony. Firms are named as the places a question was reported, not as partners of Fin Maverick. Answers are written for this page to show how to think out loud; they are not scripts to recite.

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