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  1. 054A stock's daily volatility is 1.5%. What is its volatility over a month of 21 trading days, and what is a rough 95% one-month value at risk on a Rs 10 crore position?Returns and compoundingCoreACAQR Capital ManagementGreenwich · 2022

    Try it first

    What is the monthly volatility?

    Show the worked solution

    About 6.9% a month, and a 95% one-month value at risk of about Rs 1.13 crore. Variance adds across independent days, so volatility scales with the square root of time: 1.5% x the square root of 21, which is 4.58, gives 6.87%. The one-tailed 95% point of a normal distribution is 1.645 standard deviations, so a bad month costs 1.645 x 6.87% = 11.3% of Rs 10 crore, about Rs 1.13 crore.

    Why does volatility grow with the square root of time?

    Think of someone taking random steps left or right along a lane. After 100 steps they are not 100 steps from where they began; many steps cancelled, and the typical distance is about 10 steps, the square root of 100. Daily returns behave the same way when one day does not predict the next. Variances add across days, so the standard deviation, which is the square root of the variance, grows with the square root of the number of days.

    The relationship
    σ21=σ121=1.5%×4.58=6.87%\sigma_{21} = \sigma_{1}\sqrt{21} = 1.5\% \times 4.58 = 6.87\%
    \sigma_1daily volatility, the standard deviation of one day's return
    \sigma_{21}volatility over 21 trading days
    \sqrt{21}the square root of the number of days, 4.58
    What it says in wordsMonthly volatility is daily volatility times the square root of the number of trading days in the month.
    One-month returns: volatility scales with the square root of time-20%-6.9%0+6.9%+20%1.645 sd = -11.3%Worst 1 month in 20:lose more than Rs 1.13 croreDaily 1.5% to monthlyRight: 1.5% x sqrt(21) = 6.9%Wrong: 1.5% x 21 = 31.5%One-month return on the position
    With a monthly volatility of 6.9%, the worst one month in twenty sits beyond 1.645 standard deviations, a fall of 11.3%, which on a Rs 10 crore position is a loss of more than Rs 1.13 crore.

    How do you turn a volatility into a rupee value at risk?

    Value at riskA loss threshold that a position should exceed only with a stated small probability over a stated period, such as 5% over one month. answers one question: how much would a bad month cost, where bad means the worst month in twenty. Under a normal distribution 5% of outcomes fall below the mean minus 1.645 standard deviations, so the 95% one-month VaR is 1.645 x 6.87% = 11.3% of the position. On Rs 10 crore that is about Rs 1.13 crore. Assume a zero expected return for the month; over one month the drift is small against the volatility.

    What does the number leave out?

    Two things, and saying them separates an analyst from a calculator. The square root rule needs independent days; when bad days cluster, as they do in a sell-off, real monthly risk is higher than 6.9%. And VaR marks the edge of the tail, not what sits inside it: it says nothing about how bad the worst 5% of months can get. Real returns have fatter tails than the normal curve, so a one-in-twenty month can cost well over Rs 1.13 crore.

    Where candidates lose it

    The classic error is multiplying by 21 and quoting 31.5%, a monthly volatility that would make an ordinary stock look like a lottery ticket. The interviewer asks daily against monthly precisely to see whether you know that variance, not volatility, adds across time.

    The second loss comes at VaR: using 1.96, the two-tailed figure, instead of 1.645. VaR is about losses only, one tail of the curve. Say one-tailed out loud and the right multiplier follows.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What is the annual volatility, using 252 trading days? (about 23.8%)
    • What would the 99% one-month VaR be, and why is it not simply double?
    • Why might the square root of time rule understate risk in a crisis?

    Asked at AQR Capital Management, Quantitative Research, Greenwich, 2022 (Wall Street Oasis): Specific statistics questions on financial concepts. daily vs monthly return, VAR, more that i don't remember

  2. 062Russian roulette: a six-chamber revolver holds two bullets in adjacent chambers. The cylinder is spun, the trigger is pulled once and it clicks on an empty chamber. The trigger will be pulled once more. Should that second pull come straight away, or after the cylinder is spun again?Probability and brainteasersCoreSchonfeldCentral · 2022

    Try it first

    Straight away, or spin again?

    Show the worked solution

    Pull again straight away: you survive with probability 3/4, against 2/3 after a fresh spin. The four empty chambers sit together in a row and the cylinder advances one chamber per pull. The click you heard came from one of those four, each equally likely. Only one of them, the last empty chamber before the bullets, is followed by a bullet, so the chance of dying without a spin is 1/4. A fresh spin puts you back at two bullets in six.

    Why does the first click carry information?

    Picture a street with four dark houses in a row, then two lit ones, laid out in a circle. You are told you are standing at a dark house and that you will walk to the next door. Three of the four dark houses have another dark house next door. The click tells you that you are somewhere in the run of four empty chambers, and because the bullets sit together, most of that run is followed by another empty chamber. A fresh spin throws that information away.

    After a click, three of the four empty chambers are followed by another empty one123456turns 1, 2, 3 ...red = bulletYou clicked, so you were at 3, 4, 5 or 634next is empty45next is empty56next is empty61next is a bulletPull againsurvive 75.0%Spin firstsurvive 66.7%3 of 4 against 4 of 6
    With the two bullets in chambers 1 and 2, a click means the cylinder was at chamber 3, 4, 5 or 6; chambers 3, 4 and 5 are followed by an empty chamber and only 6 by a bullet, so pulling again survives 75% of the time against 66.7% after a spin.
    The relationship
    P(survive∣no spin)=34P(survive∣spin)=46=23P(\text{survive} \mid \text{no spin}) = \frac{3}{4} \qquad P(\text{survive} \mid \text{spin}) = \frac{4}{6} = \frac{2}{3}
    3/4three of the four empty chambers are followed by another empty chamber
    4/6four empty chambers out of six after a fresh spin
    What it says in wordsWithout a spin you condition on being in the run of empty chambers; with a spin you start again from scratch.

    Would the answer change if the bullets were not next to each other?

    Yes, and saying so shows you understand the mechanism rather than the trick. Put the bullets in chambers 1 and 4. The empty chambers are 2, 3, 5 and 6, and two of them, 3 and 6, sit in front of a bullet. With the bullets apart, pulling straight away survives only 50% of the time, so a fresh spin at 66.7% becomes the better choice. The adjacency is what makes the empty chambers cluster, and the clustering is what makes the click informative in your favour.

    Why would an investing firm ask this?

    Because it is a small version of the question every analyst faces after new information: does what just happened change the odds of what comes next? An outcome you have already seen is data about the state of the world, and ignoring it in favour of the unconditional average is a common and costly habit. Say that link in one line after the numbers.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates say it makes no difference, or say spin because it resets the odds, treating the first click as if it told them nothing. The whole question turns on the click being information about where the cylinder sits.

    The second slip is dividing two bullets by the five chambers that remain and getting 3/5. The cylinder does not pick a random remaining chamber; it advances to the next one. Say that out loud and the 3/4 follows.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What if the bullets were in chambers 1 and 4 instead?
    • Three bullets in adjacent chambers, a click, then another pull. Spin or not?
    • How is this like updating a forecast after a quarterly result?

    Asked at Schonfeld, Quantitative Research, Central, 2022 (Wall Street Oasis): Coding, requires to know DP and divde and conquer., Russian Roulette

  3. 064Why should I buy your college, and how much would you sell it for? Put a price on a college with 5,000 students paying fees of Rs 3 lakh a year, running at a 25% EBITDA margin, if similar businesses change hands at 12 times EBITDA.Market sizing and estimationCoreWMWellington ManagementBoston · 2024

    Try it first

    What is the college worth at 12 times EBITDA?

    Show the worked solution

    About Rs 450 crore. Revenue is 5,000 students x Rs 3 lakh, Rs 150 crore a year. A 25% EBITDA margin gives Rs 37.5 crore, and at 12 times that is an enterprise value of Rs 450 crore, before subtracting any debt. The case for buying is fees paid in advance, a campus and approvals that are slow to copy, and demand that renews with a new batch every year.

    How do you structure an open question like this?

    The question has two halves and the interviewer wants both. It is like selling a flat: first you say what makes it worth having, the light, the location, the building, and then you give a price per square foot times the area. Give the reasons to own it in three short points, then build the price as revenue times margin times multiple, naming every input so the interviewer can push on any one of them. Leading with the structure also buys you time to do the arithmetic.

    A price is revenue x margin x multiple, so name all three5,000 studentseach square = 100Rs 150 croreRevenueRs 37.5 croreEBITDARs 450 croreValuex Rs 3 lakhfees a yearx 25%marginx 12multipleWrong: 12 x revenue = Rs 1,800 crore, four times too high
    Five thousand students at Rs 3 lakh give Rs 150 crore of revenue, a 25% margin leaves Rs 37.5 crore of EBITDA, and twelve times that is a value of Rs 450 crore, three times one year's fees.

    What makes the case for buying convincing?

    Pick the features an investor would pay for. The strongest is that customers pay a term or a year in advance and come back every year, so the business funds its own working capital and its revenue is visible well before the year starts. Add that a campus, a faculty and regulatory approvals take years to replicate, which protects the fee level, and that demand refreshes with every new batch. Then name the risk that decides the price: how full the seats are. One caution belongs here too: in many countries, including India, degree-granting colleges are commonly run through not-for-profit trusts or societies, so confirm the legal structure first, because it decides whether an investor can own the profit at all.

    Which number would you defend hardest?

    The margin and the multiple, because each moves the answer one for one. At a 20% margin the value falls to Rs 360 crore, and at 10 times EBITDA it falls to Rs 375 crore; every input in the chain carries equal weight. Justify 12 times with the visibility of fee income and 25% with a campus that is nearly full. If asked for a range rather than a point, Rs 360 to 450 crore on those two sensitivities is honest.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates answer only one half: a warm speech about the campus with no number, or a number with no reason to buy. The question is built to see whether you can pitch and value in the same breath.

    The arithmetic slip is applying the multiple to revenue and saying Rs 1,800 crore. EBITDA multiples go on EBITDA; say the margin step out loud and the error cannot happen.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Occupancy falls from 100% to 80% with fixed costs unchanged. What happens to EBITDA and the price?
    • What would you pay for a college that is only half built?
    • Why might a buyer pay more than 12 times for this college than for a coaching chain?

    Asked at Wellington Management, Investment Research, Boston, 2024 (Wall Street Oasis): Why should I buy your College and how much would you sell it for?

  4. 071A timed aptitude item of the kind used on Wonderlic-style tests: if 3 analysts write 3 reports in 3 days, how many reports do 9 analysts write in 9 days?Data and reasoning trapsWarm upPoint72New York · 2026

    Try it first

    Answer inside ten seconds.

    Show the worked solution

    27 reports. Find the unit rate first: 3 analysts writing 3 reports in 3 days means one analyst writes one report in 3 days, a third of a report per analyst-day. Nine analysts working nine days put in 81 analyst-days, and 81 x 1/3 = 27. Tripling the team triples the output and tripling the time triples it again: 3 x 3 x 3 = 27.

    Why does the fast answer of 9 feel right?

    The sentence has a rhythm, three, three, three, then nine and nine, and the ear wants to finish the pattern with another nine. It is the same pull as a kitchen puzzle where three cooks bake three cakes in three hours. Matching the pattern of the words is the trap; the fix is to reduce the problem to one worker and one day before scaling anything. Once you have the rate per analyst-day, the answer is multiplication.

    Find the rate per analyst-day first, then scale both sides123456789dayA1A2A3A4A5A6A7A8A9The question's case, in lime:3 analysts x 3 days = 9 analyst-days= 3 reports, so 1 report = 3 analyst-daysScale up:9 analysts x 9 days = 81 analyst-days81 / 3 = 27 reports, one per barWrong: 9, copying the pattern of the words
    The question's case, 3 analysts for 3 days, is 9 analyst-days and 3 reports, so one report takes 3 analyst-days; the full 9 by 9 grid holds 81 analyst-days and therefore 27 reports.

    How do you do it in ten seconds?

    Scale each dimension on its own. Three times the analysts gives three times the reports, and three times the days gives three times again, so the answer is 3 reports x 3 x 3 = 27. The general rule is output equals the rate per worker per day, times the workers, times the days, and it handles any version of the item, including the ones where the numbers do not match so neatly.

    The relationship
    reports=33×3×9×9=13×81=27\text{reports} = \frac{3}{3 \times 3} \times 9 \times 9 = \frac{1}{3} \times 81 = 27
    3 / (3 x 3)reports per analyst-day, one third
    9 x 9analyst-days in the new case, 81
    What it says in wordsReports equal the rate per analyst-day times the number of analyst-days.

    What is a timed test like this really checking?

    Wonderlic-style tests put many short items against a tight clock, so the difficulty is the time, not any single item. The format, number of items and time allowed vary by version, so confirm what the firm uses. The habit that scores on the test is the same one that keeps a model right: write the unit rate, then scale it. On a timed test, skipping an item you cannot set up in a few seconds and coming back to it is usually worth more than grinding.

    Where candidates lose it

    Nine is the whole trap, and it comes from answering the rhythm of the sentence rather than the arithmetic. Under a clock, strong candidates say it because it sounds finished.

    The second slip is 81, which is the number of analyst-days, not reports. Say the units out loud, reports per analyst-day, and both errors disappear.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • If 5 machines make 5 widgets in 5 minutes, how long do 100 machines take to make 100 widgets?
    • Two analysts together write a report in 6 days; one alone takes 10. How long does the other take alone? (15 days)
    • How would you pace a timed test where finishing every item is not expected?

    Asked at Point72, Investment Research, New York, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis): Final round was scheduled shortly after as well as a Wonderlic/Personality test.

  5. 072A car leaves point A for point B, 100 miles away, at 50 miles an hour. At the same moment a bird leaves B flying towards A at 100 miles an hour. Each time the bird meets the car it turns back to B, and each time it reaches B it turns towards the car again, until the car reaches B. How far does the bird fly?Probability and brainteasersWarm upBLBlackRockNew York · 2025

    Try it first

    How far does the bird fly?

    Show the worked solution

    200 miles. Ignore the zigzag and ask how long the bird is in the air. The car takes 100 / 50 = 2 hours to reach B, and the bird flies the whole time at 100 miles an hour, so it covers 2 x 100 = 200 miles. Summing the legs gives the same answer: 133.3 miles in the first round trip, then a third as much each round, and 133.3 / (1 - 1/3) = 200.

    What is the shortcut, and why does it work?

    Picture walking home while your dog runs back and forth between you and the front door. Ask how far the dog ran and the back and forth looks like the hard part, but the dog simply ran at its own speed for exactly as long as your walk took. When something moves at a constant speed for a known time, the distance is speed times time, however many times it turns around. The car's trip fixes the time at 2 hours, and the bird's speed does the rest.

    The bird flies as long as the car drives: 2 hours at 100 mphA, 050B, 100car, 50 mphbird, 100 mph0 h0.5 h1 h1.5 h2 hHoursMiles from ASame clock, two speedsCar: 2 h x 50 mph = 100 milesBird: 2 h x 100 mph = 200 miles200Check by summing round trips:133.3 + 44.4 + 14.8 + ...each a third of the last133.3 / (1 - 1/3) = 200
    The bird's zigzag shrinks by a third with each round trip, starting at 133.3 miles, but it flies for exactly the car's 2 hours at 100 miles an hour, so its total is 200 miles either way you count.

    How do you check it the long way?

    The first meeting comes when the gap of 100 miles closes at 150 miles an hour, after 40 minutes, 33.3 miles from A. The bird has flown 66.7 miles and flies 66.7 back to B, a first round trip of 133.3 miles. By then the car is two thirds of the way, and every later round trip covers a third of the remaining gap, so each is a third of the last. A geometric series with first term 133.3 and ratio one third sums to 133.3 / (2/3) = 200, the same answer the shortcut gives in one line.

    The relationship
    dbird=vbird×tcar=100×10050=200133.31−1/3=200d_{bird} = v_{bird} \times t_{car} = 100 \times \frac{100}{50} = 200 \qquad \frac{133.3}{1 - 1/3} = 200
    v_birdthe bird's speed, 100 miles an hour
    t_carthe car's travel time, 2 hours
    133.3the bird's first round trip in miles
    1/3the ratio of each round trip to the one before
    What it says in wordsThe bird's distance is its speed times the car's travel time, and the geometric series of round trips agrees.

    Why would an investing firm ask a puzzle like this?

    Because choosing the quantity that stays simple is most of the skill. Here time is simple and distance is messy, so solving in time turns an infinite sum into one multiplication. The same habit finds total cash generated over a period from an average rate instead of adding every quarter, or total interest paid on a loan from the average balance. Say the frame you chose before you give the number.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates start adding the legs, get the first round trip, and then run out of time or nerve at the second. The interviewer is watching whether you step back and find the frame where the problem is one line.

    The other loss is saying the distance is infinite because the bird turns infinitely often. Infinitely many legs can have a finite total when each is a fixed fraction of the last; say that, then give 200.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How many times does the bird turn round before the car arrives?
    • Where is the car when the bird finishes its second round trip?
    • If the bird flew at 150 miles an hour, how far would it go?

    Asked at BlackRock, Quantitative Research, New York, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis): A car starts at point A going 50 miles an hour towards point B, and a bird starts at point B

  6. 077The bill at a restaurant comes to exactly pi rupees, and you can only pay in whole paise. How do you pay a perfectly fair amount?Expected value and decisionsCoreMillennium ManagementSheung Wan · 2025

    Try it first

    Which approach makes your payment exactly fair?

    Show the worked solution

    Randomise: pay Rs 3.15 with probability about 0.159 and Rs 3.14 otherwise. Pi is 3.14159, which is 15.9% of the way from 3.14 to 3.15. Weighting the two payable amounts by those odds gives an expected payment of exactly pi. Neither side is favoured on average, which is the only sense in which an amount you cannot pay can be paid fairly.

    What does fair mean when the exact amount cannot be paid?

    Five children and four mangoes: nobody can get four fifths of a mango each without a knife, so a fair parent draws lots and one child misses out, with every child facing the same chance. When the exact amount is impossible, fair means fair on average: the expected payment equals what you owe. Rounding to 3.14 short-changes the restaurant every time; rounding to 3.15 overpays every time. Only a random choice between the two neighbours can hit pi exactly.

    Pick the two amounts either side of pi, then weight them so the balance sits on pi84.1%15.9%Rs 3.14Rs 3.15pi = 3.14159, 15.9% of the way from 3.14 to 3.15pay Rs 3.14pay Rs 3.15Coin method: the target odds 0.1593 are 0.0010100011... in binary. Flip a coin for digits 0 and 1.Stop at the first flip that differs from that digit: below the target, pay 3.15; above, pay 3.14.
    Pi sits 15.9% of the way from Rs 3.14 to Rs 3.15, so putting 84.1% of the probability on 3.14 and 15.9% on 3.15 balances the payment exactly at pi, and a fair coin can deliver those odds by comparing random binary digits with 0.0010100011 and so on.

    How do you find the right odds?

    Call the chance of paying 3.15 by the letter p. The expected payment is 3.14 plus p times one paisa, and you want that to equal 3.14159. So p is the fraction of the gap you still owe: 0.00159 over 0.01, which is 0.1593. Say it as a balance point: the further pi sits towards 3.15, the more often you pay 3.15.

    The relationship
    3.14+p×0.01=π⇒p=π−3.140.01≈0.15933.14 + p \times 0.01 = \pi \quad\Rightarrow\quad p = \frac{\pi - 3.14}{0.01} \approx 0.1593
    pthe probability of paying Rs 3.15
    0.01one paisa, the gap between the two payable amounts
    pi - 3.14the part of a paisa you still owe after paying 3.14
    What it says in wordsPay the higher amount with a probability equal to the share of the paisa you still owe.

    How do you actually produce odds of 0.159 with a coin?

    This is the follow-up that separates people. Write p in binary: 0.0010100011 and so on. Flip a fair coin to generate your own random binary digits, one at a time, and compare each with p's digit in the same place. At the first flip that differs, you know whether your random number is below p or above it, and you pay 3.15 or 3.14 accordingly. Each flip has a one in two chance of settling it, so on average two flips decide, even though p itself is irrational. The same idea, called randomised roundingRounding a fractional quantity up or down at random, with odds set so that the expected result equals the exact fraction., is used to split odd lots of shares fairly across client accounts.

    Where candidates lose it

    Most candidates say pay 3.14 or 3.15 and argue about which side should bear the fraction of a paisa. That treats the question as etiquette. The interviewer wants the expected value framing: fair on average is the only fairness available.

    The second loss comes on the follow-up. Candidates who reach p = 0.159 then say roll a thousand-sided die, which only approximates it. The binary coin comparison hits the odds exactly and needs about two flips.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • You eat at the same restaurant every day. Is there a non-random way to be fair over time?
    • How would you generate a probability of exactly one third with a fair coin?
    • The waiter is risk averse. Does paying pi in expectation still feel fair to him?

    Asked at Millennium Management, Quantitative Research, Sheung Wan, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis): How to pay the restaurant fairly if I owe pi dollars. Need to pay with usual dollars and cents.

  7. 083A stock has a market loading of 1.1, a size loading of 0.3 and a value loading of minus 0.2. The risk-free rate is 7%, and the factor premiums are 6% for the market, 2% for size and 3% for value. What cost of equity does a Fama-French three-factor model give?Cost of capital and ratesCoreSSState StreetCambridge · 2019

    Try it first

    What does the negative value loading do to the cost of equity?

    Show the worked solution

    13.6%. Start from the 7% risk-free rate and add each factor's loading times its premium: market 1.1 times 6% is 6.6 points, size 0.3 times 2% is 0.6, and value minus 0.2 times 3% is minus 0.6. So 7 plus 6.6 plus 0.6 minus 0.6 gives 13.6%. Here the size and value terms cancel, so the answer matches a plain CAPM with the same beta, which is a coincidence of these numbers.

    How does a factor model build a required return?

    Think of a taxi fare: a flag-down charge, then so much per kilometre, then so much per minute of waiting. Each meter runs at its own rate, and the fare is the sum. A factor model prices a stock the same way: the risk-free rate is the flag-down charge, and each factor adds how much the stock is exposed to it, the loading, times what that exposure pays, the premium. The {term('Fama-French three-factor model', 'An asset pricing model from Eugene Fama and Kenneth French that explains stock returns with three factors: the market, company size, and value against growth.')} uses three meters: the market, small against large companies, and cheap against expensive stocks.

    Each factor adds its loading times its premium; a negative loading subtracts0%5%10%15%7.0Risk-freethe floor+6.6Market+1.1 x 6%+0.6Size+0.3 x 2%-0.6Value-0.2 x 3%13.6%Cost of equitythe answer
    Starting from a 7.0% risk-free rate, the market adds 6.6 points, size adds 0.6 and a negative value loading takes 0.6 away, so the three-factor cost of equity is 13.6%.
    The relationship
    ke=rf+βM⋅MRP+βS⋅SMB+βV⋅HML=7+6.6+0.6−0.6=13.6%k_e = r_f + \beta_M \cdot MRP + \beta_S \cdot SMB + \beta_V \cdot HML = 7 + 6.6 + 0.6 - 0.6 = 13.6\%
    r_fthe risk-free rate, 7%
    beta_M, beta_S, beta_Vthe stock's loadings on the market, size and value factors
    MRP, SMB, HMLthe premiums for the market, small minus big, and high minus low book to market
    What it says in wordsRequired return is the risk-free rate plus, for each factor, how exposed the stock is times what that exposure earns.

    Why does a negative loading subtract?

    A negative value loading means the stock tends to do well when cheap stocks do badly: it behaves like a growth stock. The model says investors are paid a premium for holding value exposure, so a stock with the opposite exposure is priced to earn less, and its cost of equity falls. Push the value loading to minus 0.5 and the answer drops to 12.7%. Say the sign out loud; it is exactly what the interviewer is listening for.

    Why does the answer equal a plain CAPM here, and should you trust it?

    With the same market beta, CAPM gives 7 plus 1.1 times 6, which is 13.6%. The size and value terms happen to cancel in this question, so the two models agree only by coincidence. In practice the market loading from a three-factor regression is usually different from the CAPM beta, because the other factors absorb some of the movement. The bigger limit is the inputs: factor premiums are estimated from history, vary by market and period, and should be treated as assumptions to be stated, not facts to be quoted.

    Where candidates lose it

    The usual slip is treating every factor as additive risk and adding 0.6 for value, which gives 14.8%. The sign of the loading matters as much as its size.

    The second loss is stopping at 13.6% without noticing it equals CAPM. Pointing out that size and value cancel here, and would not in general, shows you understand the model rather than the arithmetic.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What value loading would make the three-factor answer 1 point higher than CAPM?
    • Why might a small, cheap stock have a higher cost of equity than CAPM suggests?
    • How would you estimate the loadings for an Indian stock?

    Asked at State Street, Investment Banking, Cambridge, 2019 (Wall Street Oasis): some basic market knowledge, such as factor model (Fama French), portfolio optimization, risk analysis

  8. 087Monty Hall: there are three doors and a prize behind one. You pick a door. The host, who knows where the prize is, opens a different door with no prize and offers you a switch. Why is the intuitive answer of one half wrong, and what is the chance that switching wins?Probability and brainteasersCoreSCSquarepoint CapitalLondon · 2026

    Try it first

    Two doors are left. What is the chance that switching wins?

    Show the worked solution

    Switching wins two times in three. Your first pick is right with probability one third, and nothing the host does changes that. In the other two thirds of cases the prize is behind one of the two doors you did not pick, and the host, who must open an empty door, is forced to leave the prize door shut. One half is wrong because it treats the host's reveal as random when it is not.

    Why does one half feel right?

    Two closed doors, one prize: the picture in front of you looks like a coin toss, and intuition prices the picture rather than the process that produced it. One half would be right only if the two remaining doors were equally likely before the reveal and the reveal told you nothing about either of them. Neither is true. Your door was chosen blind; the other door survived a filter run by someone who knew the answer.

    You pick door 1. The host's reveal is forced in two branches of threeYou pick door 11/3Prize behind 1Host opens 2 or 3his choice is freeSwitch loses1/3Prize behind 2Host must open 3the only empty doorSwitch wins1/3Prize behind 3Host must open 2the only empty doorSwitch winsSwitching wins in 2 of 3 equally likely branches: 2/3. Staying wins only if your first pick was right: 1/3.
    Starting from a pick of door 1, the prize is behind door 1, 2 or 3 with one third chance each, and in the two branches where the first pick is wrong the host is forced to open the only empty door, so switching wins in two of three equally likely branches.

    What exactly does the host's knowledge change?

    Think of a shopkeeper who knows which of three mangoes is ripe. You pick one; she then removes an unripe one from the two you did not pick, always careful never to remove the ripe one. She has concentrated the two thirds chance that the ripe mango was among the other two onto the single one she left. Your own pick is untouched at one third, because she would have been able to remove an unripe mango whatever you picked. The reveal carries information about the other door, not about yours.

    When would one half actually be the right answer?

    This is the part the interviewer is asking for when they ask why intuition fails. If the host did not know and opened one of the other doors at random, and it just happened to be empty, then switching would win only one half of the time. A random reveal that could have shown the prize rules out the branches where it would have, and what is left is symmetric. So the answer depends on the host's rule, not on the doors. Scale it up to make the point land: with 100 doors, you pick one, and a knowing host opens 98 empty ones; nobody thinks the last closed door is a coin toss.

    The analyst's version is reading a signal from someone who knows more than you do. A management team that chooses which numbers to disclose is running a filter, and what survives the filter is not a random sample.

    Where candidates lose it

    Saying one half is the obvious loss. The subtler one is saying two thirds and then being unable to explain why, which is exactly what this interviewer asked for: they want the reason intuition fails, not the memorised answer.

    Have the three-branch tree ready and the ignorant-host variant as the contrast. Showing that the answer changes when the host's rule changes proves you understand the mechanism.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The host opens a door at random and it happens to be empty. Now what is the chance switching wins?
    • With four doors and a host who opens one empty door, what does switching win?
    • Where in reading company disclosures do you meet the same kind of filtered evidence?

    Asked at Squarepoint Capital, Quant Research Intern Interview, London, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis): notably I was asked why the 'intuitive answer' was not true rather than just what the correct answer was, related to the Monty Hall problem

  9. 097Give a formula for the number of coloured stickers on an n by n by n Rubik's cube, and for the number of small cubes that show on the surface.Probability and brainteasersWarm upT. Rowe PriceBaltimore · 2020

    Try it first

    For a standard 3 by 3 by 3 cube, how many small cubes show on the surface?

    Show the worked solution

    Stickers: 6n squared. Cubes on the surface: n cubed minus (n minus 2) cubed. Each of the six faces is an n by n grid of stickers, so there are 6n squared, which is 54 for n of 3. For the cubes, count the hidden core: peeling one layer off every side leaves (n minus 2) cubed, so 27 less 1 is 26 on show. Both formulas need n to be at least 2.

    Why are stickers and surface cubes different counts?

    A corner cube carries three stickers, an edge cube two and a face-centre cube one. The sticker count measures surface area, while the cube count measures how many pieces touch the surface, and the corners and edges make the first larger than the second. The surface area the question asks for is the sticker count: six faces, each n by n, so 6n squared unit squares.

    What is the fast way to count the cubes on show?

    Picture a box of laddoos packed three by three by three: to find how many touch the box, count the ones that do not. Only a core with one layer peeled from every side is hidden, so the hidden cubes form an (n minus 2) by (n minus 2) by (n minus 2) block, and everything else shows. For n of 3 that core is a single cube, so 26 show. The subtraction is quicker and harder to get wrong than adding corners, edges and faces.

    Count the hidden core and subtract: 27 - 1 = 26 cubes on show3 x 3 x 3 = 27 small cubes54 stickers: 6 faces x 9the 1 hiddencentre cube(3 - 2)^3 = 1ncubeshiddenon showstickers280824327126544648569651252798150101,000512488600on show = n^3 - (n - 2)^3stickers = 6 n^2, valid for n of 2 or more
    A 3 by 3 by 3 cube has 27 small cubes and only the single centre cube is hidden, so 26 show on the surface, while six faces of nine stickers carry 54 stickers, and the table gives the same counts for larger cubes.
    The relationship
    S(n)=6n2C(n)=n3−(n−2)3=6n2−12n+8S(n) = 6n^2 \qquad C(n) = n^3 - (n-2)^3 = 6n^2 - 12n + 8
    S(n)stickers, the surface area in unit squares
    C(n)small cubes with at least one face on the surface
    nsmall cubes along one edge, 2 or more
    What it says in wordsStickers are six square faces; surface cubes are the whole block less the hidden core, which expands to 6n squared less the overlap at edges and corners.

    How do you check the formula before you commit?

    Test the smallest case you can picture. A 2 by 2 by 2 cube has no hidden centre, so all 8 pieces show, and the formula gives 8 minus 0, which is 8. Then look at the expanded form: 6n squared counts every face-cube once per face, minus 12n plus 8 removes the double and triple counts along the 12 edges and at the 8 corners. The formula breaks for n of 1, where it gives 2 for a single cube, so state that it holds from n of 2 upwards.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates confuse stickers with cubes and answer 54 cubes, or count six faces of n squared cubes and forget that edge and corner cubes sit on more than one face. Both come from starting at the surface.

    The second loss is giving a formula without testing it. Plugging in n of 2 and n of 3 takes ten seconds and catches most slips, and noting that n of 1 fails shows care.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How many small cubes show exactly two stickers on an n by n by n cube?
    • For what n are more than half the small cubes hidden?
    • How would the counts change if the cube were hollow?

    Asked at T. Rowe Price, Equities, Baltimore, 2020 (Wall Street Oasis): Give an equation that yields the surface area of an n by n by n Rubic's cube based on number of blocks per side.

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