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010

Case 010Leveraged buyoutsHard

Do a paper LBO in your head, then answer quickly as the interviewer changes the entry multiple, the interest rate and the exit multiple.

Neuberger BermanLondon · 2026Houlihan LokeyLos Angeles · 2025

1The situation

A sponsor buys Shatadru Components, an auto parts maker with EBITDA of Rs 100 crore growing 8% a year, at 8.0x, Rs 800 crore. It borrows 5.0x, Rs 500 crore, at 10%, and puts in Rs 300 crore of equity. Free cash flow before interest is 55% of EBITDA, and every rupee left after interest repays debt. The sponsor exits at 8.0x at the end of year 5.

Then the interviewer changes one term at a time: entry at 9.0x with the same Rs 500 crore of debt, interest at 12%, and exit at 7.0x.

2Your task

What are the base case MOIC and IRR, how does each change move them, and which term matters most?

Quick check

Which single change hurts the IRR most?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

The base case returns about 2.6x and 21%. Interest at 12% costs about two points, to 19.4%; exit at 7.0x costs about five, to 16.5%; and entry at 9.0x costs about seven, to 14.6%, because it raises the equity cheque on day one. Multiples move returns far more than the cost of debt, and all three together leave 7.8%.

Step 1How do you get the base case without a spreadsheet?

Round hard and say so. EBITDA grows 8% a year to about Rs 147 crore. Cash before interest is 55% of that, roughly 60 rising to 80, and interest starts at Rs 50 crore and falls as debt is repaid. Over five years about Rs 114 crore of debt is repaid, so exit debt is about Rs 386 crore against an exit value of Rs 1,175 crore, leaving Rs 790 crore of equity on Rs 300 crore in. That is 2.63x; 2.5x in five years is about 20% a year, so call it 21%.

YearEBITDACash before interestInterestDebt repaidDebt at year end
1108.059.450.09.4490.6
2116.664.249.115.1475.5
3126.069.347.621.7453.8
4136.074.845.429.4424.3
5146.980.842.438.4385.9
Rs crore, base case. Repayments grow from Rs 9.4 crore to Rs 38.4 crore as EBITDA rises and interest falls, leaving Rs 385.9 crore of debt at exit.
Base case: where the sponsor's money multiple comes from, Rs croreEntry equity300EBITDA growth at 8x+375Debt repaid from cash+114Exit equity7902.63x in five years, about 21% a year; growth does most of the work
Sponsor equity grows from Rs 300 crore to Rs 790 crore: Rs 375 crore from EBITDA growth at a constant 8.0x and Rs 114 crore from debt repaid, 2.63x the money.
Step 2How do you answer each change without rebuilding the model?

Ask what each change touches. Entry at 9.0x touches only the cheque: equity becomes Rs 400 crore against the same Rs 790 crore at exit, 1.97x, about 15%. Exit at 7.0x touches only the end: one turn less on Rs 147 crore of EBITDA is Rs 147 crore off exit equity, Rs 643 crore, 2.14x. Interest at 12% touches the middle: Rs 10 crore more interest a year means less debt repaid, about Rs 60 crore more left at exit, 2.43x. Everything a paper LBOA leveraged buyout worked by hand or in your head in an interview, with rounded numbers, to show you understand what drives the return. asks is some version of this: find the line the change touches and carry it to exit equity.

IRR under each change of terms, against a 21.4% baseBase case21.4%2.63x the moneyInterest at 12%19.4%-1.9 pts, 2.43xExit at 7.0x16.5%-4.9 pts, 2.14xEntry at 9.0x14.6%-6.8 pts, 1.97xAll three at once7.8%-13.5 pts, 1.46xOne extra turn at entry costs Rs 100 crore of equity today; one turn less at exit costs Rs 147 crore, five years away
Against a 21.4% base, 12% interest cuts the IRR to 19.4%, a 7.0x exit to 16.5% and a 9.0x entry to 14.6%, so the entry price matters most and the interest rate least.
Step 3Why does the entry multiple beat the exit multiple here?

Timing. A turn at entry is Rs 100 crore of extra equity today, and every rupee invested on day one must compound for five years. A turn at exit is a bigger number, Rs 147 crore, but it arrives in year 5, where at a 20% rate it is worth about Rs 59 crore today. Price paid is the decision a sponsor controls and the one returns are most sensitive to, which is why sponsors walk away from auctions over half a turn. Interest matters least because it only slows debt paydown, which is the smaller engine of this deal.

Close with the judgement an interviewer is fishing for. This deal relies on growth more than leverage: Rs 376 crore of the gain comes from EBITDA growth and Rs 114 crore from paydown. If growth slipped to 4%, the base case would drop far more than any single change above, so the diligence question is the 8% growth, not the 10% coupon.

Where candidates lose it

Candidates rebuild the whole model for each change and run out of time, or they guess that the change with the largest rupee amount, the exit multiple, must hurt most. Ask what the change touches and when it lands; that answers each question in seconds.

The other miss is forgetting that a higher entry price with the same debt is entirely an equity problem. Debt does not change, so every extra rupee of price is sponsor money.

What the interviewer asks next

  • Entry at 9.0x, but the lender allows 6.0x of debt. What happens to the IRR?
  • Growth slows to 4% a year. What is the IRR now?
  • What exit multiple restores a 20% IRR if entry is 9.0x?
  • How would a dividend recap in year 3 change the IRR and the MOIC?

Asked at Neuberger Berman, Private Equity, London, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis): Paper LBO where terms changed constantly (had to quickly answer what happens to x if y changes)
Asked at Houlihan Lokey, Debt Capital Markets, Los Angeles, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis): WACC changes and how it affects LBO

← Case 009Pitch a telecom tower company on the thesis that 5G lifts tenancy from 1.6 to 2.0 per tower. Quantify the upside and the risks.Case 011 →A biscuit maker's premium line has a market study already paid for, cannibalises existing sales and uses an idle warehouse. Work out the NPV.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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