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100

Case 100Credit analysis and lendingCore

A steel trader seeks an asset-based loan against receivables, inventory and machinery, with aged debts, one oversized customer and slow-moving stock. Compute the borrowing base and say how much you would lend.

TSTruist SecuritiesAtlanta · 2023

1The situation

Lohadhara Steel Traders, an invented distributor of steel sheets and coils, asks for a Rs 400 crore asset-based revolving loan. Its receivables are Rs 300 crore, of which Rs 40 crore are more than 90 days past invoice; one customer owes Rs 60 crore, and the lender's policy caps any single customer at 15% of eligible receivables. Inventory is Rs 250 crore at cost, of which Rs 50 crore has not moved in six months. Its machinery, mainly cutting and slitting lines, has an orderly liquidation value of Rs 100 crore.

The lender's advance rates are 85% of eligible receivables, 60% of eligible inventory and 40% of the machinery's orderly liquidation value. None of the large customer's balance is past 90 days.

2Your task

Compute eligible collateral and the borrowing base, compare it with the request, and say what facility you would offer.

Quick check

Roughly what is the borrowing base?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

The borrowing base is about Rs 363 crore, Rs 37 crore short of the Rs 400 crore request. Eligible receivables are Rs 239 crore after aged debts and the concentration cap, eligible inventory Rs 200 crore and machinery Rs 100 crore. At 85%, 60% and 40% they support Rs 203.15, 120 and 40 crore. I would offer a revolving line of about Rs 323 crore against receivables and stock, tested monthly, with the machinery piece as a separate amortising term loan of Rs 40 crore.

Step 1What does an asset-based lender actually lend against?

A pawnbroker does not lend against everything in your house; he lends against the gold he can sell tomorrow, and less than its full value. An asset-based loanA loan, usually revolving, whose size is set each month by the value of specific collateral, mostly receivables and inventory, rather than by a multiple of earnings. is sized by collateral the lender could collect or sell quickly if the borrower failed, so the first step is deciding which collateral counts at all. The rules that decide this are eligibility criteria, and they differ by class: receivables lose aged and concentrated balances, inventory loses stock that does not sell, and machinery is valued at what an orderly sale would fetch, not what it cost. Only then do the advance rates apply, and the result is the borrowing baseThe maximum the borrower can draw at a given date: eligible collateral in each class times its advance rate, less any reserves..

Step 2Which receivables and stock are ineligible, and why?

Receivables more than 90 days old are excluded because a customer who has not paid in three months may not pay at all: that removes Rs 40 crore, leaving Rs 260 crore. The concentration cap stops one customer's failure from sinking the collateral: 15% of Rs 260 crore is Rs 39 crore, so Rs 21 crore of the big customer's Rs 60 crore is excluded. Eligible receivables are Rs 239 crore of the Rs 300 crore on the books. In inventory, the Rs 50 crore that has not moved in six months is out, because steel that has sat for half a year will sell only at a deep discount; eligible inventory is Rs 200 crore. The machinery is already at orderly liquidation value, so all Rs 100 crore counts before its advance rate.

From Rs 650 crore of collateral to a Rs 363 crore borrowing base650Grosscollateral-40Over 90days-21Concentrationexcess-50Slow-movingstock539Eligible-176Advance ratehaircuts363BorrowingbaseRequest Rs 400 crore against a base of Rs 363 crore: a gap of about Rs 37 crore
Lohadhara's Rs 650 crore of collateral shrinks to Rs 539 crore of eligible collateral after removing aged receivables, the concentration excess and slow-moving stock, and the advance rates then cut it to a borrowing base of about Rs 363 crore.
ClassGrossIneligibleEligibleAdvance rateBorrowing base
Receivables30061 (40 aged, 21 over cap)23985%203.15
Inventory25050 (slow-moving)20060%120.00
Machinery, OLV100010040%40.00
Total650111539363.15
Rs crore. Of Lohadhara's Rs 650 crore of collateral, Rs 539 crore is eligible, and the borrowing base is Rs 363.15 crore, about Rs 37 crore below the Rs 400 crore it has asked for.
The relationship
BB=0.85(300−40−21)+0.60(250−50)+0.40(100)=203.15+120+40=363.15\text{BB} = 0.85(300 - 40 - 21) + 0.60(250 - 50) + 0.40(100) = 203.15 + 120 + 40 = 363.15
300 - 40receivables less those over 90 days
- 21the big customer's balance above 15% of Rs 260 crore
250 - 50inventory less slow-moving stock
0.40 (100)40% of the machinery's orderly liquidation value
What it says in wordsEach class is cut to what counts, then multiplied by its own advance rate, and the three pieces add to a borrowing base of about Rs 363 crore.
Eligibility does more work than the advance rates people memorisegrosseligiblelentReceivables85% of eligible300239203.2Inventory60% of eligible250200120Machinery (OLV)40% of value10010040On gross figures: Rs 445 croreCorrect base: Rs 363 croreRequest: Rs 400 croreThe Rs 82 crore difference is all eligibility: aged debts, one oversized customer and stock that does not move
Applying the advance rates to Lohadhara's gross collateral would suggest Rs 445 crore, but after eligibility the base is about Rs 363 crore, so the Rs 82 crore difference comes from aged debts, one oversized customer and stock that does not move.
Step 3How much would you lend, and on what terms?

Not Rs 400 crore. Offer a revolving line sized to the working capital base, about Rs 323 crore, with availability recalculated every month from a borrowing base certificate, and treat the Rs 40 crore against machinery as a separate term loan that amortises over a few years. Machinery does not turn into cash in the normal course of business the way receivables and steel do, so lending against it on a revolving basis lets a declining asset support a permanent loan. If Lohadhara needs more, it has two routes the lender can accept: insure the big customer's balance, which could make the Rs 21 crore excess eligible and add about Rs 18 crore, or clear the slow stock and the aged debts, which lifts eligibility as they convert to cash.

State the limits. Some lenders apply the concentration cap to the eligible pool after the excess itself is removed, which gives a slightly tighter answer, an excess of about Rs 24.7 crore and a base of about Rs 360 crore. A lender would also hold reserves for credit notes and returns, which dilute receivables, and would value inventory at what it would fetch in an orderly sale rather than at cost, so the working base is likely a little lower still. And the base is a monthly number: in a steel downturn prices fall, stock values with them, and customers pay later, so availability shrinks exactly when the trader needs it most, which is the point of an asset-based structure and the reason the lender is comfortable.

Where candidates lose it

The common loss is applying the advance rates to the gross figures: 85% of 300, 60% of 250 and 40% of 100 make Rs 445 crore, comfortably above the request. That skips the eligibility step, which is where an asset-based lender does most of its work, and overstates the base by Rs 82 crore.

The second loss is excluding the big customer's whole Rs 60 crore. The cap removes only the part above 15% of eligible receivables, Rs 21 crore; the first Rs 39 crore is perfectly good collateral.

What the interviewer asks next

  • The big customer's credit rating is cut and the lender excludes its whole balance. What is the base now?
  • Steel prices fall 15% and the inventory is revalued. How much availability does Lohadhara lose?
  • Why does an asset-based lender care more about dilution than about the borrower's EBITDA?
  • When would you lend against the machinery inside the revolving line rather than as a term loan?

Asked at Truist Securities, Asset Finance, Atlanta, 2023 (Wall Street Oasis): What are the primary categories of collateral securing an ABL and what are the nuances for each?

← Case 099A trust has Rs 100 crore to spread across liquid, short-duration debt, large-cap and flexi-cap funds. It spends Rs 6 crore a year and can bear a 10% fall in a bad year. Propose an allocation.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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