Financial Analysis puzzles, solved step by step
- Puzzles
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- Hard
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027A product sells at a 30% contribution margin. You raise the price by 5% and lose 8% of your volume. Is total contribution better or worse than before, and by how much?Corporate FP&ACost accounting
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Gut call: you gained 5% on price and lost 8% on volume. Where does total contribution land?
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Better, by about 7.3%. Take a price of 100 with variable cost 70, so each unit contributes 30. After the rise the price is 105 and each unit contributes 35. Selling 92 units instead of 100 gives 92 x 35 = 3,220 against 3,000 before. Volume could fall as far as 14.3% before the price rise stopped paying.
Why does 5% on price beat 8% on volume?
Picture a tea stall that sells a cup for 10 rupees with 7 rupees of milk, leaves and sugar in it. Raise the price to 10.50 and the stall's profit per cup goes from 3 to 3.50, a sixth more. A price rise falls straight to contribution, so its effect is measured against the margin, not against the price. The volume loss, by contrast, removes whole cups and their contribution at the same rate as the lost units, 8%.
Raising price from 100 to 105 lifts contribution per unit from 30 to 35, a 16.7% gain, so 92 units at 35 earn 3,220 against 3,000 for 100 units at 30, and volume would need to fall 14.3% to erase the gain. How much volume could you lose before the price rise hurts?
Set new contribution equal to old: units times 35 must equal 100 times 30, so units can fall to 3,000 over 35, which is 85.7. The breakeven volume loss for a price rise is the price change divided by the new margin: 5 over 35, or 14.3%. That is why thin-margin businesses gain so much from price and lose so much from discounts: at a 30% margin, a 5% discount needs volume to rise by 5 over 25, a full 20%, just to stand still.
The relationshipDelta p the price change as a share of the old price, 5% m the contribution margin before the change, 30% What it says in wordsVolume can shrink by the price change divided by the new margin before the rise stops paying.Say the limit too. The sum treats variable cost per unit as fixed and ignores any fixed costs that could be cut when volume falls, and it says nothing about customers who leave and do not come back next year.
Where candidates lose it
The usual loss is adding the two percentages: plus 5 and minus 8 is minus 3, so the move looks bad. That treats the price change as if it acted on revenue, when it lands entirely on the contribution slice.
The second loss is working in revenue instead of contribution. Revenue does fall slightly, 105 x 92 is 9,660 against 10,000, and a candidate who stops there gets the answer backwards.
What the interviewer asks next
- At the same 30% margin, how much must volume rise to justify a 10% price cut?
- How does the answer change if the margin is 70%, as in software?
- Which fixed costs would you look at if volume did fall 8%?
060A product sells at a price that gives a 40% contribution margin. If you cut the price by 10%, by how much must volume rise to keep total contribution unchanged?Corporate FP&ACost accounting
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By how much must volume rise?
Show the worked solution
Volume must rise by a third, 33.3%, just to stand still. On a Rs 100 price, contribution is Rs 40 a unit. Cut the price 10% and variable cost stays at Rs 60, so contribution falls to Rs 30, a quarter lower. Selling 40 / 30 = 1.333 times as many units keeps total contribution flat. The general rule is the cut divided by the margin less the cut: 10 / (40 - 10).
Why does a 10% price cut need far more than 10% more volume?
A samosa seller charges Rs 20 and spends Rs 12 on ingredients, so each samosa leaves Rs 8. Cutting the price by Rs 2 does not cut the ingredient bill; it cuts the Rs 8 to Rs 6. A price cut comes entirely out of contribution, because variable cost does not fall with the price, so the volume needed to make it back is set by the margin, not the price. In the puzzle the 10% cut takes a quarter of the contribution, so volume must rise by 33.3%.
Total contribution is the area of each rectangle: 100 units at Rs 40 before the cut, and Rs 30 a unit after it, so the rectangle must widen to 133.3 units, a rise of 33.3%, to keep the area at 4,000. What is the general rule, and how fast does it bite?
The relationshipcut the price reduction as a share of the old price margin contribution margin, contribution per unit over price, before the cut What it says in wordsThe volume needed rises sharply as the cut approaches the margin, and a cut as large as the margin can never be made back.Contribution margin Cut 5% Cut 10% Cut 20% 20% 33.3% 100.0% not possible 40% 14.3% 33.3% 100.0% 60% 9.1% 20.0% 50.0% The volume rise needed to hold contribution flat grows quickly as the price cut approaches the margin; at a 20% margin a 20% cut leaves nothing per unit, so no volume is enough. The table shows why low-margin businesses fear discounting. At a 20% margin a 10% cut needs volume to double; at 60% it needs only 20% more. The rule also runs the other way: a 10% price rise lifts contribution to Rs 50 a unit, so volume can fall by up to 20% before total contribution drops. Price rises are usually safer than they feel and price cuts riskier than they look.
What would you check before backing the cut?
Three things. First, whether demand will really grow by a third, which depends on how sensitive buyers are to price and whether rivals match the cut. Second, capacity: a third more units may need overtime or a new shift, which turns fixed costs into step costs. Third, the existing customers who would have paid Rs 100 anyway now pay Rs 90, which is where most of the loss sits. The limit of the rule is that it holds contribution flat; it says nothing about cash tied up in the extra stock and receivables.
Where candidates lose it
The instinct is to say 10%, or 11.1% if the candidate remembers that a fall needs a bigger rise to recover. Both hold revenue flat, not contribution, and miss that the cut lands entirely on the Rs 40 margin.
The other slip is applying the 10% cut to variable cost as well, as if costs fell with the price. They do not, which is the whole reason the answer is a third rather than a tenth.
What the interviewer asks next
- At a 25% contribution margin, what volume rise does a 10% cut need?
- By how much can volume fall after a 10% price rise before contribution drops?
- Fixed costs are Rs 20 a unit at today's volume. Does the answer change, and when would it?
076A subscription product earns Rs 500 a month per customer at a 70% gross margin. Monthly churn is 3%, and it costs Rs 6,000 to acquire a customer. What is the customer lifetime value, the LTV to CAC ratio, and the payback period in months?Corporate FP&ABusiness finance
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Before you work it: how long does the average customer stay?
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Lifetime value is about Rs 11,667, LTV to CAC is about 1.9x, and payback is about 17 months. Each customer brings Rs 350 of gross profit a month, 70% of Rs 500. At 3% churn the average customer stays 1 / 0.03 = 33.3 months, so LTV is Rs 350 x 33.3. The Rs 6,000 acquisition cost divided by Rs 350 a month is paid back in 17.1 months.
Why is the average customer life one over churn?
Think of a hostel where 3 residents in every 100 move out each month and are replaced. A resident faces a 3% chance of leaving every month, so on average the wait before leaving is 1 / 0.03 months. With a constant monthly churn rate, the expected customer life is one divided by that rate: at 3%, 33.3 months. Lifetime value is the gross profit the customer brings each month times that life.
Use gross profit, not revenue. The Rs 150 a month it costs to serve the customer is spent whether or not the customer was worth acquiring, so it cannot pay back the acquisition cost. Rs 350 x 33.33 months is Rs 11,667, and against a CACCustomer acquisition cost: marketing, sales and onboarding spend divided by the number of customers it won. of Rs 6,000 that is 1.94x.
The relationshipm gross margin, 70% ARPU revenue per customer per month, Rs 500 c monthly churn, 3%, so 1/c is the average life in months What it says in wordsLifetime value is monthly gross profit divided by the monthly churn rate.A customer who stays earns back the Rs 6,000 acquisition cost in month 17.1, but the average customer, allowing for 3% monthly churn, crosses it only in month 23.7, and the cohort curve flattens toward a lifetime value of Rs 11,667. Why are there two payback answers?
Payback is the month in which cumulative gross profit covers the Rs 6,000 spent on day zero. For a customer who stays, that is 6,000 / 350 = 17.1 months, the standard answer. Across a whole cohort payback is slower, because some customers leave before they have repaid their share of the acquisition cost. Weight each month by the chance the customer is still there and the average customer crosses Rs 6,000 in month 23.7. Give 17 months and name the cohort figure in one sentence.
Is 1.9x good enough?
Many subscription investors use a rule of thumb of 3x or better with payback inside about a year; treat those as conventions, not laws. At 1.9x this business recovers its acquisition cost with a thin cushion, and the ratio flatters it, because LTV here is undiscounted and ignores any cost of retaining customers. Churn is the strongest lever: cutting it from 3% to 2% lifts LTV by half to Rs 17,500, while a 10% price rise at the same churn only reaches Rs 12,833.
Where candidates lose it
Candidates compute lifetime value on revenue: Rs 500 x 33.3 = Rs 16,667, and report 2.8x. The Rs 150 a month it costs to serve each customer is real money, and a customer who covers only that cost has repaid nothing of the acquisition spend. Lifetime value is a profit measure and runs on gross margin.
The second loss is stating 17 months as if it were the whole truth. It assumes the customer stays. One sentence on the cohort version, and on the fact that none of this is discounted, turns a correct calculation into an analyst's answer.
What the interviewer asks next
- Discount the lifetime value at 1% a month. What does it become? (Roughly Rs 350 / (0.03 + 0.01) = Rs 8,750.)
- Which lifts LTV to CAC more: halving churn or raising the price 20%?
- How would you estimate churn for a product that launched only eight months ago?
094A cafe sells coffee at Rs 120 a cup, though each cup costs Rs 140 to serve, to bring people in. Each food item earns Rs 60 of contribution. What share of coffee buyers must also buy a food item for the coffee to pay its way?Corporate FP&ACost accounting
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What attach rate makes the coffee break even?
Show the worked solution
One coffee buyer in three, 33.3%, must also buy a food item. Each cup loses Rs 20: Rs 140 to serve against Rs 120 of price. Each food item adds Rs 60 of contribution. So one food sale covers the loss on three coffees, and the break-even attach rate is 20 / 60. Two checks matter: only food bought because of the coffee counts, and Rs 140 must be the true extra cost of a cup, not a share of rent.
How do you price a product that loses money on purpose?
A shopkeeper who sells milk below cost does it because people who come in for milk also pick up bread and biscuits. The milk is a door, and its price is justified by what walks through it. A loss leader pays its way when the profit on what customers also buy covers the loss on the leader, so the number to manage is the attach rate. Here, each coffee loses Rs 20 and each food item earns Rs 60.
The relationshipa* the break-even attach rate: share of leader buyers who also buy the add-on contribution price less the variable cost of the add-on What it says in wordsThe break-even attach rate is the loss on the leader divided by the contribution on what it brings in.Three coffees at a Rs 20 loss each balance one food item at Rs 60 of contribution, so the coffee pays its way once one coffee buyer in three also buys food. What makes the one-in-three figure misleading?
Two things. First, only incremental food counts. If half the people buying food would have come in for lunch anyway, their food was not brought in by the cheap coffee, and the coffee cannot claim it. The attach rate that matters is the share of coffee buyers who buy food because they came for coffee, which is lower than the attach rate on the till receipts. Measuring it needs a comparison: a price test in a few outlets, or the behaviour of customers before and after the coffee price changed.
Second, ask what is inside the Rs 140. If it includes a share of rent, staff and the coffee machine, those costs are there whether or not one more cup is sold. Suppose the extra cost of a cup, beans, milk and the cup itself, is Rs 70. Then each coffee contributes Rs 50 at the margin and needs no food to pay its way; it only looks like a loss after fixed costs are spread across it. Decisions about one more sale use contribution; fully loaded cost answers a different question, whether the whole cafe covers its overheads.
What would you track after launch?
Attach rate by time of day, average food contribution per coffee buyer, and the number of new customers the coffee brings in. A cafe that hits 40% attach in the morning and 15% in the afternoon may want the cheap coffee only before noon. The limitation is that habit takes time: a promotion judged on its first two weeks can look worse than it will in month three.
Where candidates lose it
The common slip is setting the attach rate at the point where food covers the full price of the coffee, or dividing the wrong way and getting three food items per coffee. Set the loss per coffee against the gain per food item and it falls out: 20 / 60.
The bigger loss is stopping at a third. The interviewer is waiting for the two questions behind it: is the food sale caused by the coffee, and is Rs 140 really the extra cost of a cup? Either can reverse the conclusion.
What the interviewer asks next
- The cafe raises coffee to Rs 130. What attach rate does it now need?
- Half of the food buyers would have come anyway. What measured attach rate do you need on the till receipts?
- How would you test whether the cheap coffee is bringing in new customers at all?
