Financial Analysis interview preparation
The three statements, working capital, ratios, forecasting, variance analysis, costing, capital budgeting, valuation and the modelling and Excel work that fills the day, plus the fit questions about why this seat. Every question is either traced to a named firm from a public candidate report, or tagged at desk level when we could not trace it — we do not invent attributions.
100 questions, mapped to the firms that asked them
- Questions
- 100
- Traced to a firm
- 42
- Firms
- 28
- Updated
- September 2026
061Walk me through WACC and how you would calculate it for an Indian mid-cap.Corporate financeKPO research support
Say this
Weight the after-tax cost of debt and the cost of equity by their market-value shares of total capital. Cost of equity comes from CAPM: risk-free rate plus beta times the equity risk premium. For an Indian company the two judgement calls are the risk-free rate and the premium.
Then walk it
- The formula: equity over total capital times cost of equity, plus debt over total capital times cost of debt times one minus tax. Use market values for the weights, not book, and target weights rather than today's snapshot if the structure is moving.
- Risk-free rate: the ten-year government security yield, matched to the currency of your cash flows. If you are modelling in rupees you use the G-sec, not a Treasury, because the inflation expectation embedded in the two is different.
- Beta: take a peer set, unlever each peer's beta using its own debt-to-equity and tax rate, take the median, then relever at your target structure. Do not use a raw regression beta off a thinly traded mid-cap, because it is mostly noise.
- Equity risk premium: for India, practitioners typically use something in the 6 to 8 percent range over the G-sec, and the honest position is to state the number you used and show the sensitivity rather than defend a decimal.
- Cost of debt: the marginal rate you would borrow at today, not the average historical coupon on legacy loans. For a mid-cap that means the current bank lending rate for its rating, and then times one minus the tax rate for the shield.
- Then the caveats worth pre-empting: small companies carry an illiquidity or size premium that CAPM does not capture, WACC assumes a constant capital structure which an LBO or a deleveraging story violates, and a one-point change in WACC can move a DCF value by 15 to 20 percent. So I would always present a WACC range, not a point.
Where candidates lose it
Using the historical average cost of debt and book-value weights. Both are wrong: WACC is forward-looking and market-based. Also, quoting a beta straight from a screen for an illiquid mid-cap, rather than unlevering a peer set.
Expect next
- Why unlever and relever beta?
- What equity risk premium would you use for India and why?
- How would you find the cost of equity for an unlisted company?
062Why is debt cheaper than equity, and why not fund everything with debt?Corporate financeCorporate FP&A
Say this
Debt is cheaper for three reasons: lenders rank ahead of shareholders so they take less risk, their return is contractual rather than residual, and interest is tax-deductible. You cannot fund everything with debt because beyond a point the risk of financial distress raises the cost of both debt and equity.
Then walk it
- Seniority and security come first. A lender has a claim on cash flow before any dividend and usually a charge on assets, so the required return is lower. Equity gets what is left, which may be nothing.
- Then the tax shield. At a 25 percent tax rate, a 9 percent coupon costs you 6.75 percent after tax. That is a real cash subsidy and it is why leverage lifts returns on equity.
- So on paper more debt lowers WACC, and that is where Modigliani and Miller with taxes stops being useful. In the real world, leverage brings fixed cash obligations, covenants, loss of flexibility and eventually a risk premium on the debt itself.
- The distress costs are both direct and indirect. Direct is legal and restructuring cost. Indirect is worse: customers hesitate, suppliers tighten terms, good staff leave, and you cannot fund the capex that keeps you competitive. That is how leverage destroys operating performance, not just financial ratios.
- There is also the agency and flexibility argument. Debt capacity is an option worth holding. A company with headroom can buy a distressed competitor; a fully levered one cannot, and gets bought instead.
- So the practical answer is an optimal range rather than a point. For a stable Indian consumer business that might be 1.5 to 2.5 times net debt to EBITDA; for a cyclical commodity producer, materially less, because the same leverage is far riskier against volatile EBITDA.
Where candidates lose it
Stopping at the tax shield. The complete answer needs seniority, the tax shield, then distress costs and loss of flexibility as the offset. Naming a leverage range for a specific business type is what makes it sound practical.
Expect next
- What is the optimal capital structure for a cement company?
- How do you know when a company has too much debt?
- Does the tax shield still matter for a company paying MAT?
Firm tags come from public, anonymous candidate reports on Wall Street Oasis: strong signal, not sworn testimony. Firms are named as the places a question was reported, not as partners of Fin Maverick. Answers are written for this page to show how to think out loud; they are not scripts to recite.


