Case 019Manager evaluation and attributionHard
Hillsan Credit Opportunities Fund reports annualised volatility of 4% with first-order autocorrelation of 0.5 in its monthly returns, because it marks illiquid loans to model. What is its likely true volatility, and what does that do to its Sharpe ratio?
1The situation
Hillsan Credit Opportunities Fund lends to mid-sized companies and holds loans that rarely trade. Each month its administrator values the book using a pricing model and a few broker quotes. Over five years the fund has returned about 9% a year with annualised volatility of just 4%, while cash earned 6%. Its reported Sharpe ratio of 0.75 is among the best in the allocator's credit bucket.
The allocator's analyst notices that Hillsan's monthly returns have a first-order autocorrelation of 0.5: a good month tends to be followed by another good month, which liquid credit funds do not show.
2Your task
What does the autocorrelation tell you, what is Hillsan's likely true volatility, and what happens to its Sharpe ratio?
Quick check
Roughly what is Hillsan's true volatility once the smoothing is removed?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
Hillsan's true volatility is probably about 6.9%, not 4%, so its Sharpe ratio falls from 0.75 to about 0.43. Autocorrelation of 0.5 means each month's reported return is half the new shock and half last month's mark, so losses are spread out and look small. Unsmoothing multiplies volatility by the square root of 3, about 1.73, and divides the Sharpe ratio by the same factor.
Step 1Why does autocorrelation point to smoothing?
In a liquid market, last month's return tells you almost nothing about this month's, because prices absorb news quickly. A book marked to model behaves differently. Think of a thermostat that reports the average of the last few readings: a sudden cold snap shows up as a gentle dip spread over days. When a fund's marks lag the true value, each reported return is partly this month's shock and partly last month's, which shows up as positive autocorrelation and makes volatility look lower than it is. An autocorrelation of 0.5 is a strong signature.
Step 2How do you estimate the true volatility?
Model the reported return as a blend: half the true return this month and half last month's reported return. UnsmoothingReversing the lag in reported returns by assuming each reported figure blends the true return with the previous reported one, then solving for the true series; the approach is associated with Geltner and with Getmansky, Lo and Makarov. solves for the true series. With a blend weight of 0.5, true volatility equals reported volatility times the square root of (1 + 0.5) over (1 - 0.5), which is the square root of 3, about 1.73. Hillsan's 4% becomes about 6.9%.
| r_rep | the reported monthly return |
| r_t | the true, unobserved return |
| rho | the smoothing weight, estimated by the autocorrelation, 0.5 |
Step 3What happens to the Sharpe ratio, and to anything else?
The average return does not change: smoothing shifts gains and losses between months but does not create them. So the Sharpe ratio, excess return over volatility, falls by the same factor of 1.73: from 3 over 4, 0.75, to 3 over 6.9, about 0.43. Two other numbers move with it. Drawdowns are deeper than reported, because losses are spread across several months of marks. And the fund's correlation with equities and high-yield bonds is understated, since a lagging mark cannot move with a market that falls in a week, so its diversification value is overstated.
Step 4What does the allocator do with this?
Compare Hillsan with liquid credit funds only after unsmoothing, and ask how the book is marked: how often, by whom, and against what evidence. A Sharpe ratio of about 0.43 for a credit fund with quarterly liquidity and model marks is ordinary, not exceptional, and the allocator should price the illiquidity rather than reward it. The limit of the method is worth saying: 0.5 is estimated from five years of monthly data and is itself noisy, and some autocorrelation can come from genuine momentum in credit. Treat the corrected numbers as the better estimate, not the truth.
Where candidates lose it
The trap is taking reported volatility at face value because the numbers are audited. Audited marks can still be smooth; the autocorrelation is the clue the interviewer planted, and a candidate who does not use it has missed the question.
The second is correcting volatility and forgetting the knock-on effects: a lower Sharpe ratio, deeper true drawdowns and understated correlation with markets, which is the risk that hurts a portfolio in a crisis.
What the interviewer asks next
- What autocorrelation would make the true volatility exactly twice the reported figure?
- How would you check whether Hillsan's marks lag market moves in a sell-off month?
- Why might smoothing be a feature investors are willing to pay for, and what is the risk in that?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
