Case 026Credit, distressed and capital structureWarm up
Vishrant Finance's one-year commercial paper yields 11% while AAA paper of the same term yields 8%. With a 30% recovery in default, what default probability makes you indifferent between them, and how do you use that number?
1The situation
Vishrant Finance is a mid-sized non-bank lender that funds part of its loan book with one-year commercial paper. Its paper yields 11%: put in Rs 100 today and Vishrant promises Rs 111 in a year. One-year paper from a AAA-rated issuer yields 8%, so Rs 100 becomes Rs 108, and for this case you treat that as certain.
If Vishrant defaults, your team's estimate is that holders get back Rs 30 of every Rs 100 lent, a 30% recovery. The fund's credit desk asks whether the extra 3 percentage points of yield are worth taking.
2Your task
What one-year default probability makes you indifferent between the two papers, and what do you compare that number with before you buy?
Quick check
Roughly what default probability does the 3-point spread pay for?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
The spread pays for a default probability of about 4% a year: 4.3% on the standard shortcut, 3.7% when you count every rupee. The shortcut is spread divided by loss in default, 3% over 70%. The number is a hurdle, not an answer. Vishrant's paper is worth buying only if your own estimate of its default risk sits clearly below it, with room left for illiquidity and error.
Step 1What does the extra yield actually pay you for?
Lending Rs 1,000 to a friend who promises Rs 1,110 back, rather than taking Rs 1,080 from a bank deposit, only makes sense if the extra Rs 30 covers the chance the friend does not pay. A credit spread is the price of expected loss: roughly the chance of default times the share of your money you lose when it happens. Here a default costs 70% of the money lent, because 30% comes back. Credit desks call this the credit triangleThe rough link between spread, default probability and recovery: spread is about default probability times one minus recovery, so knowing any two gives the third..
| s | the extra yield over AAA paper, 11% less 8% |
| R | the share of money recovered in a default, 30% |
| p | the one-year default probability the spread pays for |
Step 2Why does the exact answer come out lower than 4.3%?
Write out both outcomes for Rs 100. If Vishrant pays, you get Rs 111. If it defaults, you get Rs 30. The AAA paper pays Rs 108 either way. In a default you lose Rs 81 against the Rs 111 you were promised, not Rs 70, because the coupon disappears along with the principal. Setting the expected payoff equal to Rs 108 gives p = 3 / 81, which is 3.7%. The shortcut ignores the lost coupon, which is why it runs a little high; over one year at these yields the gap rarely changes a decision.
| Default probability | Expected Rs back per Rs 100 | Against AAA's Rs 108 |
|---|---|---|
| 0.0% | 111.00 | +3.00 |
| 2.0% | 109.38 | +1.38 |
| 3.7% | 108.00 | +0.00 |
| 4.3% | 107.53 | -0.47 |
| 6.0% | 106.14 | -1.86 |
| 10.0% | 102.90 | -5.10 |
Step 3What do you compare the breakeven with?
Your own estimate of Vishrant's default risk, built from the lender's books: its capital, the quality of its loans, how much of its funding falls due within a year, and whether banks will keep rolling its credit lines. The breakeven is a hurdle, not a forecast: the paper is worth buying only if your view of default risk sits well below about 4%. If you think the true figure is 2%, the paper returns Rs 109.38 on average against Rs 108, a gain of Rs 1.38 on every Rs 100. If you think 6%, it returns Rs 106.14, a loss of Rs 1.86.
Two limits keep the answer honest. First, part of any spread pays for things other than default: paper from a smaller lender is hard to sell before it matures, and buyers demand extra yield for that. So the default rate the market truly implies is below the breakeven, and a spread that looks generous may simply be paying for illiquidity. Second, recovery is a guess. At 10% recovery the same spread covers only 3.3% a year; at 50% it covers 6.0%. For current default and recovery rates by rating, read the rating agencies' latest published default studies rather than relying on a remembered figure.
Where candidates lose it
The fast wrong answer is 3%: treating the spread itself as the default probability. That quietly assumes you lose everything in a default. With 30% recovered, each default costs less, so the same spread covers more of them, about 4.3%.
The second loss is stopping at the number. The interviewer wants the comparison that follows: your view of Vishrant's default risk against the breakeven, and a sentence on the liquidity premium hiding inside the spread.
What the interviewer asks next
- Recovery falls to 10%. What default probability does the spread cover now?
- Vishrant's paper is two years, not one. How does the breakeven change?
- Which three lines of a non-bank lender's balance sheet would you read first?
- Why might the spread widen even if Vishrant's default risk has not changed?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
