Hedge Funds puzzles, solved step by step
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019Three dealers quote USD/INR at 84.00, EUR/USD at 1.10 and EUR/INR at 93.00, each a single price you can deal at. Is there an arbitrage, which way do you trade it, and what is the profit on EUR 1 million?Prop and quant trading firmsVolatility and relative value funds
Try it first
Which statement is right?
Show the worked solution
Yes: the direct quote is rich by 60 paise, so buy euros through dollars and sell them for rupees at 93.00, making Rs 6 lakh on EUR 1 million before costs. The implied rate is 1.10 x 84.00 = 92.40 rupees per euro. Spend Rs 9.24 crore on USD 1.1 million, turn that into EUR 1 million, and sell the euros for Rs 9.30 crore. You finish in rupees, where you started, with Rs 6 lakh more.
How do you spot the mispricing in one line?
If one stall sells mangoes at Rs 100 a dozen and the stall next to it buys them back at Rs 10 each, you would buy dozens and sell singles all day. Every pair of currencies can be priced two ways, directly or through a third currency, and when the two prices differ you buy on the cheap route and sell on the rich one. Through dollars a euro costs 1.10 dollars at Rs 84.00 each: Rs 92.40. The direct dealer pays Rs 93.00. That 60 paise gap is the whole trade.
A euro costs Rs 92.40 when bought through dollars at 84.00 and 1.10 but fetches Rs 93.00 from the direct dealer, so running rupees to dollars to euros and back to rupees earns 60 paise a euro, Rs 6 lakh on EUR 1 million before costs. Step Trade You pay You receive 1 Buy USD with rupees at 84.00 Rs 9,24,00,000 USD 1,100,000 2 Buy EUR with dollars at 1.10 USD 1,100,000 EUR 1,000,000 3 Sell EUR for rupees at 93.00 EUR 1,000,000 Rs 9,30,00,000 Net, in rupees Rs 6,00,000 Starting and ending in rupees, the three legs turn Rs 9.24 crore into Rs 9.30 crore, a profit of Rs 6 lakh on EUR 1 million, before spreads and dealing costs. What stops this from being free money in practice?
Three things. Real quotes have a bid and an offer, and the gap survives only if it is wider than the three spreads you cross plus the cost of dealing. A 60 paise gap on a 92 rupee price is about 0.65%, far wider than dealer spreads in major currencies, which is why a gap that size would be traded away almost at once. And the legs must be done together: if one price moves before you finish, you are left holding an open currency position instead of a locked-in profit.
Where candidates lose it
The common slip is running the loop the wrong way round: selling euros through dollars and buying them directly. That locks in a 60 paise loss on every euro. Decide which route is rich before placing any leg, and say it out loud.
The second is quoting the profit in a mix of currencies or on the wrong notional. Start and end in the same currency; starting from rupees makes the answer a clean Rs 6 lakh on EUR 1 million.
What the interviewer asks next
- EUR/INR is quoted 92.95 / 93.05, USD/INR 83.99 / 84.01 and EUR/USD 1.09975 / 1.10025. Is there still an arbitrage?
- Why do gaps like this almost never appear in major currencies?
- If the third leg fails to fill, what position are you left with?
058A market maker knows that 30% of the orders she receives come from traders who know the true value is exactly Rs 1 above or below the mid. The other 70% are uninformed and buy or sell at random. How wide must her bid-ask spread be just to break even?Prop and quant trading firmsVolatility and relative value funds
Try it first
How wide must the full spread be?
Show the worked solution
The spread must be Rs 0.60: a bid Rs 0.30 below the mid and an offer Rs 0.30 above it. Call the half-spread s. Each uninformed order earns her s on average. Each informed order trades on the side where the value really is Rs 1 away, so she loses 1 minus s. Breaking even needs 0.7s = 0.3(1 - s), which gives s = 0.30.
Why do some of the people who trade with you cost you money?
A shop that buys second-hand phones pays the same price to every seller, but the sellers who know their phone is faulty are the keenest to sell. A quote is an offer made to everyone, and the people who know more take it only when it hurts you. The spread is the fee charged to the whole crowd to pay for the few who know more, which is called adverse selectionThe tendency for the counterparties who choose to trade with you to be the ones who know the trade is good for them..
How do you set up the break-even?
Charge a half-spread s on each side. An uninformed order is as likely to be a buy as a sell and carries no information, so on average it earns you s; an informed order buys at your offer only when the value is Rs 1 above the mid, so it costs you 1 minus s. Weight each by how often it arrives and set the total to zero: 0.7s - 0.3(1 - s) = 0, so s = 0.30 and the spread is Rs 0.60.
The relationships the half-spread, the distance from the mid to the bid or the offer 0.7 the share of orders from uninformed traders 1 - s what an informed trade takes: the Rs 1 value gap less the half-spread crossed What it says in wordsThe spread earned from uninformed flow must pay for the expected loss to informed flow.At a half-spread of Rs 0.20 she earns Rs 0.14 an order from uninformed flow but loses Rs 0.24 to informed flow, a loss of Rs 0.10; at Rs 0.30 she earns and loses Rs 0.21 each, the break-even spread of Rs 0.60. What moves the spread?
Two things: how much of the flow is informed and how much the informed know. In general the half-spread is s = aV, where a is the informed share and V is how far the true value sits from the mid, so doubling either doubles the spread. Here 0.3 x 1 = 0.3. That is why quotes widen ahead of a results announcement, when more of the flow may know something, and in small stocks, where one piece of news moves the value a long way. The model leaves out inventory risk and competing quoters, both of which move a real spread; say so.
Where candidates lose it
The common slip is answering Rs 0.30, which is the half-spread, or quoting a width without saying where the bid and offer sit. Name both sides: bid at the mid minus 0.30, offer at the mid plus 0.30.
The deeper loss is charging each informed trade the full Rs 1 and forgetting that the informed trader also crosses the spread, which gives 0.7s = 0.3 and s of about 0.43. Her loss to an informed order is the value gap less the half-spread.
What the interviewer asks next
- Half the flow is now informed. What spread breaks even?
- You receive three buy orders in a row. Should you move your mid, and which way?
- A rival quotes Rs 0.40 wide. What happens to the mix of flow you receive?
083A binary contract pays Rs 100 if the index closes higher tomorrow and nothing otherwise. The market is 55 bid, 60 offered, and your model says the chance of an up close is 50%. What do you do, and what is your edge?Prop and quant trading firmsVolatility and relative value funds
Try it first
What is the trade?
Show the worked solution
Sell at the 55 bid; the edge is Rs 5 a contract, five points of probability. A contract paying Rs 100 on an up close is worth Rs 100 times the probability, so your model values it at Rs 50. Selling at 55 collects Rs 55 for a liability worth Rs 50 on average. Buying at the 60 offer would give away Rs 10 of expected value. The edge is only as good as the model behind it.
Why is a binary price just a probability?
Think of a bet with a friend: you pay a fixed sum now and get Rs 100 back if it rains tomorrow. If you think rain is a 30% chance, the most you would pay is Rs 30. A contract paying Rs 100 or nothing is worth 100 times the probability of the payout, so a price of 55 is the market saying 55%. Read as probabilities, the quote says between 55% and 60%, and your model says 50%.
With your model value at 50, a bid of 55 and an offer of 60, selling at the bid earns 5 over fair value and buying at the offer loses 10; selling 100 contracts at 55 receives Rs 5,500 against an expected payout of Rs 5,000, an expected profit of Rs 500. Which side of the quote can you trade?
You buy at the offer and sell at the bid, never the other way round. Buying costs 60 for something your model values at 50, a loss of 10 in expectation, while selling receives 55 for the same thing, a gain of 5. So the trade is to sell at 55. Sell 100 contracts and you receive Rs 5,500; half the time you pay out Rs 10,000 and half the time nothing, so the expected payout is Rs 5,000 and the expected profit Rs 500.
The relationshipbid the price at which you can sell, 55 p your model's probability of an up close, 0.50 100 the payout if the index closes higher What it says in wordsYour edge on each contract sold is what the market pays you minus what the contract is worth on your numbers.When would you do nothing?
If your model said 57%, the fair value of 57 would sit inside the quote: selling at 55 loses 2 and buying at 60 loses 3. An edge exists only when your value falls outside the bid and offer, not whenever you disagree with the middle of the market. Then add the honest caveat. A market pricing an up close near 57.5% may know something your model does not, and each contract swings between plus 55 and minus 45, so a 5-point edge needs many independent trades, and a model you trust, before it shows up in the P&L.
Where candidates lose it
The fast wrong answer is to buy because the market is above 50 and so seems to think up is likely. That reads the quote as a forecast to follow rather than a price to trade against, and the candidate who buys at 60 pays 10 more than the contract is worth on their own numbers.
The second loss is trading the wrong side of the quote, selling at 60 or buying at 55. Say which side you would hit before you give the edge.
What the interviewer asks next
- Your model says 57%. What do you do?
- You are asked to make a two-sided market around your 50%. Where do you quote, and why not 49 to 51?
- The contract instead pays Rs 100 for every point the index rises. How does the pricing change?
