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Hedge Funds puzzles, solved step by step

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  1. 030Your fund owns 1% of a company's shares. On a normal day 0.2% of the company's shares change hands, and your desk will not trade more than 20% of the day's volume. How many trading days do you need to exit the position?Estimation and mental mathsWarm upMulti-manager platformsLong-short equity funds

    Try it first

    Quick number:

    Show the worked solution

    About 25 trading days, roughly five weeks. The market trades 0.2% of the shares a day and you take at most a fifth of that, so you can sell 0.04% of the company a day. A 1% stake divided by 0.04% a day is 25 days. In the desk's language the position is five days of volume, and exiting it without moving the price takes a month.

    What is the one division that answers it?

    Emptying a water tank through a tap that you are only allowed to open a fifth of the way: how long it takes is the tank size divided by the flow you actually use. Days to exit equals position size divided by your daily selling capacity, and capacity is market volume times your participation cap. Here that is 1% over (0.2% x 20%), or 1% over 0.04%: 25 days. Keeping everything in percent of shares means you never need the share count or the price.

    Selling 0.04% of the company a day, the 1% stake takes 25 trading days0.0%0.5%1.0%1510152025Trading day (bar = stake held at the start of the day)day 5: 0.80% left afterday 10: 0.60% left afterday 20: 0.20% left afterDaily capacity0.2% x 20%= 0.04%1% / 0.04%25 days
    Selling 0.04% of the company each day, 20% of the daily 0.2% volume, the 1% stake falls in equal steps and is fully sold only after 25 trading days, with 0.80% still held after the first week.

    Why does a portfolio manager care about this number?

    Because the price can move a long way in 25 days. A position you cannot exit quickly carries more risk than its daily volatility suggests: if the stock falls 2% a day for a week, you have sold only a fifth of it. That is why many desks cap a position at a set number of days of volume, often a few days, and why liquidity sits beside volatility in position sizing. The measure has a name, days to liquidatePosition size divided by the volume you can realistically trade in a day; a common liquidity limit on hedge fund books., and interviewers like hearing it.

    Say the limitations. Volume is not steady; it dries up exactly when you most want to sell, and in a sell-off everyone is trying to do the same thing. A 20% participation rate also moves the price against you, so the real exit costs more than the screen price. A stronger answer adds that you would stress the calculation with half the normal volume, which gives 50 days.

    Where candidates lose it

    The fast wrong answer is five days: 1% divided by 0.2%. It assumes you can be all the volume in the stock, which would crush the price. The participation cap is the whole point of the question.

    The second loss is converting to shares and rupees before dividing. Everything is already a percentage of the same share count, so one division does it. Say the answer, then say why liquidity is a risk in its own right.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Volume halves in a sell-off. How long now, and what would you do in the first week?
    • The fund has a rule of no more than five days to liquidate. How big can the position be?
    • How would you estimate the price impact of selling 20% of volume every day?
  2. 055Your average winning trade makes 1.5 times what your average losing trade loses. What hit rate do you need just to break even?Estimation and mental mathsWarm upMulti-manager platformsLong-short equity funds

    Try it first

    Winners are 1.5 times the size of losers. What hit rate breaks even?

    Show the worked solution

    40%. Measure everything in units of the average loss. Each trade wins 1.5 units with probability p and loses 1 unit otherwise, so the expected result per trade is 1.5p minus (1 - p). Setting that to zero gives p = 1/2.5 = 40%. At a 45% hit rate the book makes 0.125 units a trade, so a trader who is wrong more often than right can still run a good business.

    Why is a hit rate below 50% not a problem on its own?

    A street vendor selling umbrellas can stand idle most days and still do well, because the rainy days pay for the dry ones. What decides whether a trading book makes money is the hit rate times the size of the wins against the miss rate times the size of the losses, not the hit rate alone. A win-loss ratio of 1.5 moves the breakeven from 50% down to 40%.

    The relationship
    p×1.5=(1−p)×1  ⇒  p=11+1.5=40%p \times 1.5 = (1-p) \times 1 \;\Rightarrow\; p = \frac{1}{1 + 1.5} = 40\%
    pthe hit rate, the share of trades that win
    1.5the average win as a multiple of the average loss
    1 - pthe share of trades that lose
    What it says in wordsThe book breaks even when expected winnings per trade equal expected losses per trade.
    Expected wins against expected losses per trade, winners 1.5 times losersunits of the average loss per tradenetHit rate 30%wins 30% x 1.5 = 0.45losses 70% x 1 = 0.70-0.25Hit rate 40%wins 40% x 1.5 = 0.60losses 60% x 1 = 0.60breakevenHit rate 45%wins 45% x 1.5 = 0.675losses 55% x 1 = 0.55+0.125Hit rate 50%wins 50% x 1.5 = 0.75losses 50% x 1 = 0.50+0.25
    At a 30% hit rate expected wins of 0.45 units fall short of expected losses of 0.70; at 40% both are 0.60 and the book breaks even; at 45% wins of 0.675 beat losses of 0.55, a profit of 0.125 units a trade.

    What does the general rule look like?

    For a win-loss ratio R the breakeven hit rate is 1 over (1 + R). At R = 1 it is 50%, at R = 1.5 it is 40%, at R = 2 it is 33% and at R = 3 it is 25%. This is why portfolio managers are reviewed on both numbers together. A falling hit rate is fine if the winners are running further, and a rising hit rate is a warning sign if it comes from cutting winners early and letting losers run.

    What would you add before calling 45% a good business?

    Costs and sample size. Commission, slippage and financing come off every trade, winners and losers alike, so they raise the breakeven. If costs run at 0.05 units a trade, the book needs 1.5p - (1 - p) = 0.05, a hit rate of 42%. And a ratio of 1.5 measured over twenty trades is noisy; say you would want a longer record before trusting either number.

    Where candidates lose it

    The instinct is to say 50% or more, because being right more often than wrong sounds like the definition of a good trader. The interviewer wants you to weigh each outcome by its size rather than count outcomes.

    The other slip is inverting the ratio and answering 60%, which is the breakeven if losers were 1.5 times winners. Write the one equation, 1.5p = 1 - p, before you say a number.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Your hit rate is 55% and your winners are 0.8 times your losers. Are you making money?
    • Costs are 0.1 units a trade. What hit rate do you need now?
    • Why might a manager's win-loss ratio fall as the fund grows?
  3. 080A strategy trades 200 stocks, each with an average daily value traded of Rs 50 crore. It may take at most 5% of any day's volume in a stock, and it turns its book over 10 times a year across 250 trading days. Roughly how much capital can it run?Estimation and mental mathsHardMulti-manager platformsLong-short equity funds

    Try it first

    What is the capacity, to the nearest round number?

    Show the worked solution

    About Rs 12,500 crore. Each stock allows 5% of Rs 50 crore, Rs 2.5 crore a day. Across 200 stocks that is Rs 500 crore a day, and across 250 days Rs 1,25,000 crore a year. A book turned over 10 times a year needs 10 rupees of trading for every rupee of capital, so the book can be Rs 1,25,000 crore divided by 10. Treat it as a ceiling, not a working size.

    What does capacity actually mean?

    Picture a juice stall that can squeeze 500 glasses a day. How many regular customers can it serve? That depends on how often each one comes. If every regular drinks a glass a day, 500; if each comes once in ten days, 5,000. A strategy's capacity is the capital it can run before its own trading exceeds what the market will absorb, so it is tradable volume divided by how often the book must be traded.

    From one stock's daily volume to the capital the strategy can runRs 50 cra day, one stockx 5%Rs 2.5 cryou may take a dayx 200 stocksRs 500 crall 200 stocks, a dayx 250 daysRs 1,25,000 cra year, 250 days/ turnover 10Rs 12,500 crcapacitySame tradable volume, different turnover: capacity, Rs croreTurnover 2x a year62,500Turnover 5x a year25,000Turnover 10x a year12,500Turnover 20x a year6,250Turnover 50x a year2,500
    Rs 50 crore of daily value in one stock, at a 5% participation limit, across 200 stocks and 250 days, allows Rs 1,25,000 crore of trading a year, which supports a Rs 12,500 crore book at a turnover of 10; the same volume supports Rs 62,500 crore at 2x and only Rs 2,500 crore at 50x.

    How do you build the number out loud in the room?

    Go one multiplication at a time and say each one. 5% of Rs 50 crore is Rs 2.5 crore per stock per day. Two hundred stocks make Rs 500 crore a day. Two hundred and fifty days make Rs 1,25,000 crore a year. Dividing by a turnover of 10 gives Rs 12,500 crore, and the step people drop is the last one: capacity is not a day's or a year's volume.

    The relationship
    K=N×ADV×p×Dτ=200×50×0.05×25010=12,500K = \frac{N \times \text{ADV} \times p \times D}{\tau} = \frac{200 \times 50 \times 0.05 \times 250}{10} = 12{,}500
    Nnumber of stocks traded, 200
    ADVaverage daily value traded per stock, Rs 50 crore
    pthe most of a day's volume the strategy may take, 5%
    Dtrading days a year, 250
    tauturnover, how many times a year the book is traded, 10
    What it says in wordsCapacity is what the market lets you trade in a year, divided by how many times a year you need to trade your book.

    Why is turnover the lever that matters most?

    Every input enters in proportion, but the market and the risk team set the others, while the strategy itself sets its turnover, and turnover varies far more across strategies. A strategy that turns over 50 times a year has a capacity of Rs 2,500 crore on this universe; one that turns over twice a year has Rs 62,500 crore. That is why fast strategies close to new money early and slow ones can run large books.

    Why is the real capacity lower than this ceiling?

    The estimate assumes the strategy trades evenly every day and in every stock. It does not. Trades cluster when signals fire, which is often when others trade too, and the thinner names in the list hit the 5% limit long before the larger ones. The definition of turnover matters as well: if 10 times means buying 10 times the book and also selling it 10 times, the traded value doubles and capacity halves to Rs 6,250 crore. Say which definition you used, and add that trading costs rise before the hard limit, so returns fade well before the ceiling.

    Where candidates lose it

    The usual loss is stopping at Rs 500 crore a day or Rs 1,25,000 crore a year and calling that capacity. Both measure how much can be traded, not how much capital that trading can support, and the interviewer is waiting for the division by turnover.

    The second loss is presenting Rs 12,500 crore as an exact answer. It is a ceiling built on even trading and one definition of turnover; saying so is what makes the estimate believable.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Half of the 200 names trade only Rs 10 crore a day. What is the capacity now?
    • How would you define turnover so the estimate is not off by a factor of two?
    • At what size would you expect returns to start fading, and why before the ceiling?
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