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Hedge Funds interview preparation

Long-short equity, macro, event-driven, distressed, multi-manager platforms and the Indian Category III landscape. Every question is either traced to a named firm from a public candidate report, or tagged at desk level when we could not trace it — answers lead with the point, then the mechanism, then the limitation.

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Question bank

100 questions, mapped to the firms that asked them

Questions
100
Traced to a firm
39
Firms
16
Updated
September 2026
Asked at
All firmsMan Group10Balyasny Asset Management7Bridgewater Associates3DED.E. Shaw3Apollo Global Management2KKR2Oaktree Capital Management2Point722SCSquarepoint Capital2ACAQR Capital Management1BGBaupost Group1Coatue Management1HPS Investment Partners1Northern Trust1Viking Global Investors1Wolverine Trading1
Topic
All topicsStrategy taxonomy8Stock pitch10Short selling6Portfolio construction8Risk and drawdown8Performance and alpha7Event-driven and merger arb8Distressed and credit5Fund structure and economics7Financing, NAV and operations6Compliance and research process5Quant and systematic6India and Category III AIFs5Career and fit11
Level
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Type
AnyTechnicalMarket viewBrainteaserCaseFit
Showing 1–2 of 2 · filtered from 100Clear filters
  1. 066Explain a hurdle rate, a clawback and a crystallisation period to an investor.Fund structure and economicsHardtechnicalFund of funds

    Say this

    A hurdle is the return the fund must beat before any performance fee is earned. A clawback returns fees already paid if later losses show they were not deserved. A crystallisation period is how often the performance fee is locked in and taken. All three exist because the performance fee is an option and investors are trying to make it less of one.

    Then walk it

    1. Hurdle: typically cash, SOFR plus a spread, or a benchmark. With a 5 percent hurdle and a 12 percent return, the 20 percent fee applies to 7 points, not 12. Then ask whether it is a hard hurdle, fee on the excess only, or a soft hurdle, fee on everything once cleared. The difference is real money.
    2. Crystallisation: monthly, quarterly or annual. More frequent crystallisation favours the manager, because fees are locked in on a good quarter even if the year ends flat. Annual with a genuine high water mark is the investor-friendly standard.
    3. Worked example of why frequency matters: up 10 percent in the first half, down 10 percent in the second, roughly flat for the year. With quarterly crystallisation the manager has banked a performance fee on the first half. With annual, nothing is due.
    4. Clawback is more common in private funds than hedge funds, and it is the fix for that problem: fees paid on interim gains are returned if the final outcome does not support them, usually held in escrow.
    5. The equalisation problem sits behind all of it. Investors subscribing at different times have different high water marks, so funds either run separate series per subscription or use equalisation accounting with depreciation deposits. It is administratively ugly and it is why the administrator matters.
    6. The plain conclusion for an investor: the headline two and twenty tells you almost nothing. Hurdle type, crystallisation frequency, high water mark treatment and the expense load determine what you actually pay, and two funds with identical headline terms can differ by hundreds of basis points a year.

    Where candidates lose it

    Defining the three terms in isolation. The value of this answer is showing how they interact and which combinations transfer money to the manager. The hard-versus-soft hurdle distinction and the crystallisation frequency example are the two specifics that make it convincing.

    Expect next

    • Which is better for the investor, a hard or a soft hurdle?
    • Why is crystallisation frequency worth arguing over?
    • What is equalisation and why does it exist?
  2. 067I would like you to evaluate my LP stake in a fund. How much would you be willing to pay for it?Fund structure and economicsHardsuperdayBGBaupost GroupEquity Hedge · Boston · 2018

    Say this

    I would start from reported NAV, then adjust it for three things: whether the marks are believable, what the liquidity terms let me do with it, and what fees I inherit. For a hedge fund LP interest that usually means paying a discount to NAV, and the size of the discount is the whole answer.

    Then walk it

    1. First ask what I am actually buying. A limited partnership interest in the fund, with its capital account, its high water mark, its lock-up status and its place in any side pocket. Not a portfolio of securities.
    2. Then interrogate the NAV. What percentage of the book is level one, exchange-priced and verifiable, versus level two and level three marked by the manager? I would take reported NAV on the liquid sleeve and haircut the hard-to-value sleeve materially, 20 to 40 percent depending on who marks it and whether the auditor tested it.
    3. Then the liquidity terms, which determine the discount as much as the assets. Am I locked for two more years, is there a gate, is a side pocket attached? Discount for the time I cannot get out, at my own required return. Two years locked at a 12 percent required return is roughly 20 percent of value before anything else.
    4. Then the fees I inherit. The seller's high water mark is a real asset to me: if the fund is below it, I get performance-fee-free return until it recovers, which is worth paying for. If the fund is at a peak, I inherit a full fee load.
    5. Then the qualitative discount: is the manager's team intact, is the strategy still in capacity, and why is the seller selling? Motivated sellers are the reason this market exists, and an LP selling because they know something is a genuine risk.
    6. Then say a number and defend it, because refusing to is the real failure. Something like: 'For a fund with 70 percent liquid marks, a one-year remaining lock and no side pocket, I would start around 85 to 90 percent of NAV, and I would go to 70 if a quarter of the book is level three.' Then name the one piece of information that would move the bid most, which is almost always the valuation policy on the illiquid sleeve.

    Where candidates lose it

    Answering NAV. If NAV were the answer there would be no secondary market. The analytical content is the mark quality, the liquidity discount and the inherited high water mark. And the interviewer here is explicitly testing whether you will commit to a price under uncertainty, so produce a number with a range and the reasoning behind it rather than more questions.

    Expect next

    • Why is the seller selling?
    • How much would you pay if a third of the book is level three?
    • How does an inherited high water mark change your bid?

    Reported by candidates at Baupost Group (Equity Hedge, Boston, 2018). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

Firm tags come from public, anonymous candidate reports on Wall Street Oasis: strong signal, not sworn testimony. Firms are named as the places a question was reported, not as partners of Fin Maverick. Answers are written for this page to show how to think out loud; they are not scripts to recite.

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