Case 084DCF and intrinsic valueHard
A DCF gives a software company an enterprise value but you do not know its share price, and it has options and RSUs outstanding. Solve for the value per share with the treasury stock method, and explain how stock-based compensation must be treated consistently.
1The situation
Your DCF values Tavrin Software, an invented maker of payroll software, at an enterprise value of Rs 5,000 crore. Tavrin has Rs 200 crore of net cash. It has 100 crore basic shares, 10 crore employee options with a strike of Rs 30, and 5 crore restricted stock units that vest with no payment.
Tavrin is private, so there is no share price to plug into the dilution maths. In building the cash flows, the team treated stock-based compensation of about Rs 40 crore a year as a real cost; a colleague suggests adding it back as non-cash, which would lift enterprise value to Rs 5,600 crore.
2Your task
Find the value per share without a market price, show why guessing a price first goes in circles, and say whether the colleague's add-back is right.
Quick check
Equity value is Rs 5,200 crore. Roughly what is the value per share?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
Value per share is about Rs 47.83. Write price and dilution together: P times 115 crore shares, less Rs 300 crore of option strike cash, equals Rs 5,200 crore, so P is 5,500 over 115. Diluted shares are then 108.73 crore. Stock compensation must be counted once: either as a cost in the cash flows, as here, or as future dilution in the share count, never added back and ignored.
Step 1Why can you not just pick a price and run the treasury method?
Because the answer moves the input. The treasury stock methodAssume in-the-money options are exercised and the strike cash is used to buy back shares at the current price, so only the net new shares count as dilution. needs a price to decide how many shares the strike cash buys back, and the price is what you are solving for. Guess Rs 52, the basic-share answer, and you get 109.23 crore diluted shares and a new price of Rs 47.61. Use that and you get Rs 47.84, then Rs 47.83. It converges, but slowly and only if you keep going. It is like setting a restaurant bill split that depends on how many friends come, while who comes depends on the split.
| Round | Price assumed, Rs | Diluted shares, crore | New price, Rs |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 52.00 | 109.23 | 47.61 |
| 2 | 47.61 | 108.70 | 47.84 |
| 3 | 47.84 | 108.73 | 47.83 |
| 4 | 47.83 | 108.73 | 47.83 |
Step 2How do you solve it in one line?
Write the price into the dilution and solve both together. Diluted shares are 100 + 5 + 10 - 300/P. Equity value equals price times diluted shares, so 5,200 = 115P - 300. That gives P = 5,500 / 115 = Rs 47.83: equivalently, add the strike cash option holders would pay to equity value and divide by every share that could exist. Check it: at Rs 47.83 the options are in the money, the Rs 300 crore buys back 6.27 crore shares, leaving 108.73 crore diluted shares, and 5,200 divided by that is Rs 47.83. If the solved price came out below the Rs 30 strike, you would drop the options and solve again.
Step 3Why must stock-based compensation be treated the same way in the cash flows and the share count?
Because it is one cost, and it can be paid in only one way. If the DCF treats Rs 40 crore a year of SBCStock-based compensation: paying staff in shares or options instead of cash. It costs existing shareholders through dilution rather than through the bank account. as a cost, the share count should hold only shares and options that exist today; future grants are already paid for in the cash flows. If you add it back as non-cash, you must then add the shares future grants will create, or you have counted employees' pay as free. The colleague's version does neither: Rs 5,600 crore over today's share count gives Rs 53.04, 10.9% too high, and the gap is exactly the value of the pay nobody charged for.
Close with the practical answer an interviewer wants. Treat SBC as a cash cost in unlevered free cash flow and use today's diluted share count; it is the cleaner choice because forecasting future grants and prices adds a second circular problem. The limit: unvested RSUs and options can lapse when staff leave, so a careful model applies a forfeiture estimate rather than counting every one, and performance-linked awards count only if the targets are likely to be met.
Where candidates lose it
The usual error is plugging in a made-up share price, often the basic-share answer, running the treasury method once and stopping. The answer is then neither the basic nor the solved figure, and the interviewer asks which price you used and why.
The second is adding SBC back because it is non-cash, as in EBITDA, and keeping today's share count. That counts staff pay as free and overstates value by the full present value of future grants.
What the interviewer asks next
- Tavrin also has a convertible bond with a conversion price of Rs 50. How does that change the solve?
- Why do some banks deduct SBC from EBITDA in comps but not in the DCF? Is that consistent?
- How would you treat options that vest only if revenue doubles in three years?
- Show that the answer is the same if the RSUs are treated as options with a zero strike.
Asked at Evercore, Investment Banking, Menlo Park, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis): how does SBC get reflected in UFCF/DCF, how does SBC impact EQ if you don't know how much share price is
Company names and figures are illustrative.
