Case 090Deal executionCore
A board has two bids: Rs 1,000 crore conditional on financing with an 85% chance of closing, or Rs 950 crore fully committed. A failed deal leaves a standalone value of Rs 700 crore and six lost months. Which is worth more, and what reverse break fee would make the higher bid clearly better?
1The situation
Vishrut Pharma, an invented maker of generic injectables, is being sold by its founders. Two bidders are left. Bid A is Rs 1,000 crore but conditional on the buyer raising acquisition debt; the sell-side bankers put its chance of closing at 85%. Bid B is Rs 950 crore from a strategic buyer with cash on hand and no financing condition.
If a signed deal fails, the founders keep a business worth about Rs 700 crore on its own, and the process restarts about six months later. Use 12% a year for the cost of that delay.
2Your task
Compare the two bids on expected value, decide whether the gap is real, and size a reverse break fee that would make Bid A clearly the better choice.
Quick check
Ignoring the six-month delay, what is Bid A worth on expected value?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
The bids are worth about the same: Bid A is 955 on expected value, about 949 once the six-month delay is priced, against a certain 950. Bid A only beats Bid B if its closing odds are above about 85%, which is the bankers' estimate itself. A reverse break fee of about Rs 89 crore keeps A ahead even at 80% odds, and gives the buyer a reason to close.
Step 1How do you compare a higher bid that may not close with a lower one that will?
Weight each outcome by its chance and price the time lost. A bid is worth its price only if it closes; otherwise it is worth what the seller is left with, later. It is like choosing between a job offer at Rs 10 lakh that depends on the company's funding round and a certain offer at Rs 9.5 lakh: if the first falls through, you are back to searching. Here: 0.85 x 1,000 + 0.15 x 661 = 949.2, where 661 is Rs 700 crore received six months late, discounted at 12% a year.
Step 2How sensitive is the answer to the 85% estimate?
Very, which is the real point. Bid A beats Bid B only if its chance of closing is above 85.2%, a hair above the bankers' own estimate. At 80% Bid A is worth about Rs 932 crore, Rs 18 crore behind. The 85% is a judgement about debt markets months from now, so a board relying on it is betting the difference on a number nobody can measure. And the failure branch is probably worse than Rs 700 crore: a business that has been through a failed sale often loses staff and customers who heard about it.
Step 3What reverse break fee would make Bid A clearly better?
A reverse break feeA payment the buyer makes to the seller if the deal fails for reasons on the buyer side, such as financing falling through. adds money to the failure branch. Size it so Bid A still matches Bid B if the closing odds are 80%: 0.8 x 1,000 + 0.2 x (661 + F) = 950 gives F of about Rs 89 crore. At the bankers' 85%, Bid A with that fee is worth about Rs 962 crore. The fee also changes the odds themselves: a buyer who must pay Rs 89 crore if its financing fails works harder to secure it, and asks lenders for committed rather than best-efforts terms.
| Reverse break fee, Rs crore | Bid A at 85% odds | Bid A at 80% odds | Bid B |
|---|---|---|---|
| 0 | 949.2 | 932.3 | 950.0 |
| 50 | 956.7 | 942.3 | 950.0 |
| 90 | 962.7 | 950.3 | 950.0 |
| 150 | 971.7 | 962.3 | 950.0 |
Close with the board's judgement. With no fee, take Bid B: it is worth the same and carries no risk. With a fee near Rs 90 crore and committed financing letters, Bid A becomes the better offer. The limit of the arithmetic is that the probabilities are estimates and the fee size is a negotiation; the method shows the board what it is trading, not what the other side will accept.
Where candidates lose it
The common miss is comparing headline prices, Rs 1,000 crore against Rs 950 crore, and choosing the higher one. A higher bid that may not close is worth less than its headline, and here the gap almost vanishes.
The second is treating a failed deal as zero, which overstates the risk and makes Bid B look far better than it is. The seller keeps a real business; it just keeps it later and probably a little damaged.
What the interviewer asks next
- Bid B asks for six months of exclusivity and a 3% break fee payable by Vishrut. Does that change your advice?
- How would the analysis change if Bid A were half in the buyer's shares?
- What could the sell-side bank do in the process to raise Bid A's chance of closing?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
