Case 026Performance review and attributionCore
A balanced advantage fund returned 11.4% a year against 12.9% for its benchmark, but with 8% volatility against 11%. Which is the better risk-adjusted result, and what would you tell a client who only sees the lower return?
1The situation
Paramita Mutual Fund runs a balanced advantage fund that moves its net equity between roughly 30% and 80% depending on valuations. Over the last three years it returned 11.4% a year with an annualised volatility of 8%. Its benchmark, a blend of equity and bond indices, returned 12.9% a year with volatility of 11%. Cash, a liquid fund, earned about 6.5% a year over the same period.
A client who invested Rs 10 lakh three years ago calls. He has seen a comparison table showing the fund 1.5 points a year behind its benchmark and asks whether he picked a poor fund.
2Your task
Which result is better once risk is counted, how confident can you be in that, and what do you say to the client?
Quick check
Before any maths: on return per unit of risk, which did better?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
The fund's risk-adjusted result is slightly better: a Sharpe ratio of about 0.61 against 0.58 for the benchmark. It earned 4.9 points over cash while taking 8 points of volatility; the benchmark earned 6.4 points for 11. Scaled to the benchmark's risk, the fund would have returned about 13.2%. The margin is small over three years, so tell the client the fund did its job, a smoother ride for a little less return, not that it beat the market.
Step 1Why is raw return the wrong scoreboard here?
Two drivers reach the same city. One arrives ten minutes earlier by speeding through every signal; the other drives steadily and arrives a little later. You would not call the first the better driver without asking what risk he ran. A fund that deliberately holds less equity should be judged on how much return it earned for the risk it took, not on return alone. The standard measure is the Sharpe ratioReturn above cash divided by volatility. It says how many points of extra return each point of risk bought.: take the cash rate off the return, then divide by volatility.
For the fund: 11.4 minus 6.5 is 4.9 points of excess return, over 8 points of volatility, which is 0.6125. For the benchmark: 12.9 minus 6.5 is 6.4 points, over 11, which is 0.5818. The fund bought slightly more return for each unit of risk. The benchmark earned more in total because it took about 37% more risk, not because it used that risk better.
Step 2How do you turn a ratio into something the client can feel?
Put both results on the same risk. If the fund had been geared up to the benchmark's 11% volatility, its approach would have earned 6.5 plus 0.6125 times 11, about 13.24%, which is 0.34 points more than the benchmark. That figure, sometimes called M-squaredA fund return rescaled to the benchmark risk level, so the two can be compared in plain percentage points., is easier to say out loud than a ratio. Then give the rupee story and the bad-year story side by side.
| Three years, illustrative | Fund | Benchmark |
|---|---|---|
| Return a year | 11.4% | 12.9% |
| Volatility a year | 8.0% | 11.0% |
| Sharpe ratio (cash 6.5%) | 0.61 | 0.58 |
| Rs 10 lakh grew to, lakh | 13.82 | 14.39 |
| Rough 1-in-40 bad year (return less 2 x volatility) | -4.6% | -9.1% |
The bad-year row uses a crude rule, return less two standard deviations, and real markets have fatter tails, so treat it as a sense of scale, not a forecast. The client gave up about Rs 57 thousand of gain in exchange for a portfolio whose rough bad year was about half as deep. That is the trade a balanced advantage fund exists to offer.
Step 3How confident can you be that the fund is genuinely better?
Not very, and say so. A Sharpe gap of 0.03 over three years of monthly returns is well inside the noise; a slightly different start date could flip it. The honest reading is that the fund delivered its promise, not that it has proven skill. Two checks sharpen the view: the fund's worst drawdown against the benchmark's, and whether its equity calls added value or it simply held less equity in a rising market, which a cheaper static hybrid would also have done.
For the client, close with his own situation. If he chose this fund because he would not have held on through a benchmark-sized fall, the fund did exactly what he paid for. If he wanted maximum growth and can sit through deep falls, the question is not whether the fund failed but whether it was the right category for him.
Where candidates lose it
The common loss is answering the client with the return table alone and agreeing that the fund lagged. That treats a deliberately lower-risk fund as if it were trying to match an equity-heavy benchmark, and it invites a switch at exactly the wrong moment.
The opposite miss is overselling the Sharpe gap. A difference of 0.03 over three years is not proof of skill; an interviewer will push you on sample size, and the right answer admits it.
What the interviewer asks next
- The fund's worst drawdown was 9% against the benchmark's 17%. How does that change your conversation?
- Why might the Sharpe ratio flatter a fund that holds illiquid bonds?
- Which benchmark would you argue is fairer for a balanced advantage fund, and why?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
