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Mutual Fund Mastery puzzles, solved step by step

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  1. 010A Rs 1,000 crore equity fund has a 1.5% annual expense ratio. How much is charged each day, where does the charge show up, and why does an investor never see a fee deducted from their account?NAV, units and fund mechanicsCoreFund operationsRegistrars and transfer agents

    Try it first

    Where does the daily expense actually come out?

    Show the worked solution

    About Rs 4.1 lakh a day, taken inside the NAV. 1.5% of Rs 1,000 crore is Rs 15 crore a year; divided by 365 it is about Rs 4.11 lakh a day. The fund books that as a liability before striking the NAV, so each unit is worth a little less, about 0.21 paise a day at an NAV of 50. The investor never sees a deduction because the cost is already in the price.

    If nothing is deducted, how is the fee paid?

    Think of a restaurant that folds the service charge into the menu price instead of adding it to the bill. You pay it with every dish; you just never see a line saying so. A fund's expenses are charged to the scheme itself every day, so they reduce net assets and the NAV, and the investor pays through a slightly lower price per unit rather than a visible deduction. The number of units you hold never changes because of the fee.

    The fee is taken inside the NAV, one day at a time1.5% a yearon Rs 1,000 croreRs 15 croreDivide by 365accrued every dayRs 4.1 lakhBooked as a liabilitynet assets fallbefore the NAVNAV struck netper unit at NAV 500.21 paiseWhat the investor seesNAV each day, already net of that day's share of the feeNo line on the statement says fee; the cost is inside the priceRs 15 crore a year
    A 1.5% expense ratio on Rs 1,000 crore is Rs 15 crore a year, about Rs 4.1 lakh accrued each day as a scheme liability, so the NAV every investor sees is already net of that day's cost.

    How small is it per unit, and why does that matter?

    At an NAV of 50, one day's share is 50 times 1.5% over 365, about Rs 0.0021, or 0.21 paise. Nobody notices a fifth of a paise a day, which is exactly why the expense ratio has to be read off the factsheet rather than felt in the account. Across a year it is 1.5% of the money, and it compounds as a drag like any other cost.

    The relationship
    Daily accrual=1,000×0.015365=0.0411 crore≈Rs 4.1 lakh\text{Daily accrual} = \frac{1{,}000 \times 0.015}{365} = 0.0411 \text{ crore} \approx \text{Rs } 4.1 \text{ lakh}
    1,000the scheme's net assets in Rs crore
    0.015the annual expense ratio
    365days over which the annual charge is spread
    What it says in wordsSpread the yearly percentage across the days and charge that slice to the scheme each day.

    Two practical points complete the answer. Because assets change every day, the accrual is recomputed on each day's net assets rather than fixed at Rs 4.1 lakh. And the published returns of a fund are already after this cost, so a fair comparison with an index must use the fund's NAV returns against the index's total return. Expense ratio limits are set by regulation and change; confirm the current SEBI framework before quoting one.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common wrong picture is that the fee is billed once a year or taken by cancelling units, as a bank might debit a charge. Candidates who say it in a fund operations interview show they have not seen how the NAV is struck.

    The second slip is dividing by 250 trading days. The charge accrues on every calendar day, so divide by 365 and say why.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How would the daily accrual change if the fund's assets doubled over the year?
    • Why do the direct and regular plans of the same scheme have different NAVs?
    • Where on a factsheet or annual report would you find the expense ratio?
  2. 038An ETF's creation unit is 50,000 units. Its indicative NAV is Rs 245.60 and it trades on the exchange at Rs 247.50. What does an authorised participant make by creating units and selling them, and what does that trade do to the premium?NAV, units and fund mechanicsCorePassive and index teamsIndian AMCs

    Try it first

    What is the authorised participant's gross gain on one creation unit, before costs?

    Show the worked solution

    About Rs 95,000 before costs, and the trade itself pushes the premium down. The participant buys the underlying basket at Rs 245.60 a unit, swaps it for 50,000 new ETF units, and sells them at Rs 247.50, keeping Rs 1.90 a unit. That is a 0.77% premium on Rs 1.23 crore. Selling the new units adds supply, so the price falls towards NAV until the premium no longer covers costs.

    Where does the profit come from?

    Picture a sweet shop that sells a box of twelve laddoos for more than the twelve laddoos cost loose. Someone will buy loose laddoos, box them, and sell the boxes until the gap closes. An ETF unit is a box of shares, and when the box trades above the value of what is in it, the participant who can make new boxes earns the gap. Only authorised participantsLarge brokers or market makers allowed by the fund house to create and redeem ETF units in bulk, by exchanging baskets of the underlying shares. can make boxes, and only in creation-unit sizes, here 50,000 units.

    The relationship
    gain=(P−iNAV)×N=(247.50−245.60)×50,000=Rs 95,000\text{gain} = (P - \text{iNAV}) \times N = (247.50 - 245.60) \times 50{,}000 = \text{Rs }95{,}000
    Pthe ETF's market price, Rs 247.50
    iNAVthe indicative NAV, the live value of the basket per unit, Rs 245.60
    Nunits in one creation unit, 50,000
    What it says in wordsThe gross gain is the premium per unit times the number of units created.
    Creation arbitrage: the premium is the profit, and the trade erases it1. Buy the basketShares worth Rs 1.228 croreRs 245.60 a unit of NAV2. Deliver it to the fundReceive 50,000 new unitsa creation unit3. Sell units on the exchangeAt Rs 247.50: Rs 1.2375 crorethe premium is captured4. Extra supply hits the priceETF price falls towards NAVpremium shrinksrepeat whilepremium beats costsGross gain: 1.90 x 50,000Rs 95,000Premium 0.77%. If costs are 0.25% of the basket, Rs 30,700, the net gain is about Rs 64,300, and the tradestops paying once the price falls to about Rs 246.21, NAV plus costs.
    The participant buys the basket for Rs 1.228 crore, receives 50,000 new units, and sells them at Rs 247.50, keeping a gross Rs 95,000; the extra units it sells push the price back towards NAV until the premium no longer covers costs.

    Why does the premium shrink rather than persist?

    Every round of the trade adds new units to the market, and that extra supply pushes the ETF price down towards the value of its basket. Buying the basket nudges the shares up a little too. The participant stops when the gap no longer pays for brokerage, taxes, impact and the risk of prices moving mid-trade. If those costs are 0.25% of the basket, about Rs 30,700, the net gain is about Rs 64,300, and the trade stops once the price is within about Rs 0.61 of NAV. The reverse trade works on a discount: buy units cheap, redeem them for the basket, sell the shares.

    When does the mechanism fail to hold the price?

    The arbitrage is only as good as the participants' ability to trade the basket. If the underlying shares are illiquid, or a market is shut while the ETF trades, or participants step back in a stressed market, premiums and discounts can stay wide for days. The iNAV is itself an estimate, refreshed every few seconds, so a small gap may be noise. The 0.25% cost is an assumption for the arithmetic; real costs depend on the basket.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common slip is computing the value of the units, Rs 1.24 crore, or the gap on one unit, Rs 1.90, and calling either the profit. The profit is the gap times the creation unit, and the interviewer wants to hear both numbers multiplied.

    The second loss is missing the second half of the question. The trade is not only a profit, it is the mechanism that keeps an ETF's price near its NAV. Say that sentence, and say that costs set how close.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The ETF trades at a 1% discount instead. Walk through the trade that closes it.
    • Why do premiums on international ETFs sometimes stay wide for weeks?
    • Why can an ordinary investor not run this trade on 500 units?
  3. 066A company parks Rs 10 crore of surplus cash in a liquid fund yielding 6.8% for 9 days. Roughly what does it earn, and how does that compare with an overnight fund yielding 6.4%?NAV, units and fund mechanicsCoreFund operationsRegistrars and transfer agents

    Try it first

    Roughly what does the liquid fund earn in nine days?

    Show the worked solution

    About Rs 1.68 lakh from the liquid fund, against about Rs 1.58 lakh from the overnight fund. Short-term fund income accrues daily, so it is amount x yield x days / 365: Rs 10 crore x 6.8% x 9 / 365 = Rs 1,67,671. At 6.4% it is Rs 1,57,808. The gap of about Rs 9,863 is what the treasurer is paid for accepting the liquid fund's small extra rate and credit risk.

    How do you turn an annual yield into nine days of income?

    A shopkeeper who rents a room for Rs 36,500 a year earns Rs 100 a day, and nobody would charge a guest for a nine-day stay by quoting the year. Yields are quoted per year, but liquid and overnight funds accrue income every calendar day, so the money earned is the yearly yield scaled by days over 365. Rs 10 crore at 6.8% earns Rs 18,630 a day; nine days is Rs 1,67,671. The overnight fund, at 6.4%, earns Rs 17,534 a day and Rs 1,57,808 over the same nine days.

    Rs 10 crore for nine days: income is yield x days / 36500.5L1.0L1.5LRs 1,67,671Liquid fund6.8%, paper up to about 3 monthsRs 1,57,808Overnight fund6.4%, one-day lendinggapRs 9,863The arithmetic10 crore x 6.8% x 9 / 365= Rs 1,67,67110 crore x 6.4% x 9 / 365= Rs 1,57,808Per dayRs 18,630 vs 17,534Full-year figure, not earnedRs 68,00,000
    Rs 10 crore earns Rs 1,67,671 in nine days in a liquid fund at 6.8% and Rs 1,57,808 in an overnight fund at 6.4%, a gap of Rs 9,863, because short-term income is the yearly yield scaled by days over 365.
    The relationship
    income=10,00,00,000×0.068×9365≈Rs 1,67,671\text{income} = 10{,}00{,}00{,}000 \times 0.068 \times \frac{9}{365} \approx \text{Rs }1,67,671
    10,00,00,000the amount parked, Rs 10 crore
    0.068the fund's yearly yield, taken here as net of expenses
    9 / 365the fraction of a year the money is invested
    What it says in wordsShort-term fund income is simple: amount, times yearly yield, times the share of the year.

    Is the extra Rs 9,863 worth taking?

    An overnight fundA debt fund that lends only for one business day at a time, mostly through overnight repo-style borrowing, so it carries almost no rate or credit risk. lends for one day at a time; a liquid fundA debt fund holding money market paper and short bonds that mature within about three months, so its NAV moves only slightly with rates and credit events. holds paper running out to about three months. The 0.4% yield gap is pay for that extra term and credit exposure, and over nine days it comes to Rs 9,863 on Rs 10 crore, about 0.01% of the money. A treasurer weighs that against the small chance of a mark-down in the liquid fund during the same nine days. For a company that needs every rupee back on day nine, the overnight fund's certainty can be worth more than Rs 9,863.

    Two practical limits. Liquid funds in India can charge an exit load on very short holdings, and the cut-off times for same-day NAV decide which day's NAV applies, so check the scheme's current terms before working out a short stay. And the quoted yield is the portfolio's yield; the realised return depends on what happens to that paper over the nine days, so the figures above are estimates, not quotes.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common slip is quoting a yearly figure, Rs 68 lakh, or dividing by twelve months and then multiplying by nine. Income on short funds accrues by the day, so the only fraction that matters is 9 / 365.

    The second miss is calling the liquid fund simply better because it yields more. The interviewer wants the trade named: Rs 9,863 extra in exchange for a little rate and credit risk, which matters more to a treasurer than the extra income.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The company redeems on day 5 instead of day 9. What changes besides the income?
    • Why does a liquid fund's NAV still rise on weekends and holidays?
    • A liquid fund holds a paper that is downgraded on day 4. What happens to the treasurer's nine-day return?
  4. 095An investor bought 1,000 units of a fund at Rs 20 in January and 1,000 more at Rs 30 in June. She now redeems 1,200 units at Rs 35. On a first-in-first-out basis, what is the gain on the units sold, and why does an average-cost view give the wrong figure?NAV, units and fund mechanicsCoreRegistrars and transfer agentsDistribution and sales

    Try it first

    What is the gain on the 1,200 units under first-in-first-out?

    Show the worked solution

    Rs 16,000: the redemption uses all 1,000 January units and 200 June units. The January units gain Rs 15 each, Rs 15,000; the 200 June units gain Rs 5 each, Rs 1,000. An average cost of Rs 25 gives Rs 12,000, because it spreads the cheap January units across units still held. It also loses the purchase dates, which decide each lot's holding period.

    Which units does a redemption actually sell?

    Think of a shop's milk shelf: staff push the oldest cartons to the front so they sell first. Under first-in-first-out, a redemption is matched against the oldest units still held, lot by lot, so each unit sold carries the price and the date of the purchase it came from. That is the convention commonly used for mutual fund units in India; confirm how it applies to the investor's own folio. Here the January lot of 1,000 goes first, and only then 200 from June.

    Redemptions take the oldest units firstUnits held, oldest on the leftJanuary lot: 1,000 at Rs 20first in, first outJune lot: 1,000 at Rs 301,200 units redeemed at Rs 35800 left, cost Rs 30Gain under first-in-first-out1,000 x (35 - 20)Rs 15,000200 x (35 - 30)Rs 1,000Gain on the 1,200 unitsRs 16,000Each lot keeps its own date for the holding periodAverage-cost shortcutcost Rs 25 a unit1,200 x (35 - 25)Rs 12,000and no dates to split by
    Redeeming 1,200 units takes all 1,000 January units bought at Rs 20 and 200 June units bought at Rs 30, a gain of Rs 16,000 at Rs 35, whereas an average cost of Rs 25 would show Rs 12,000 and lose the purchase dates.
    The relationship
    G=1,000×(35−20)+200×(35−30)=15,000+1,000=16,000G = 1{,}000 \times (35 - 20) + 200 \times (35 - 30) = 15{,}000 + 1{,}000 = 16{,}000
    1,000, 200units taken from the January and June lots
    35the redemption price, Rs a unit
    20, 30the purchase price of each lot
    What it says in wordsEach lot's units are matched to their own cost, starting with the oldest, and the gains are added.

    Why does the average-cost figure mislead?

    Because it pretends every unit cost Rs 25. The units actually sold were mostly the cheap January ones, so the true gain is higher now, Rs 16,000 against Rs 12,000. The total gain over the whole holding does not change, Rs 20,000 once all 2,000 units are sold at Rs 35; what changes is how much of it is counted now and how much later. The 800 units left have a cost of Rs 30 under first-in-first-out, Rs 24,000, not the Rs 20,000 an average-cost view would record.

    The dates matter as much as the amounts. Suppose she redeems the following March and the line between short and long term is twelve months, an assumption here; confirm the current rule for the fund type. Then the January units are long term and the 200 June units short term, so the Rs 15,000 and the Rs 1,000 may be taxed differently. An average-cost view cannot even ask the question, because it has thrown away the dates. Registrars track every purchase as a separate lot for exactly this reason.

    Where candidates lose it

    The tidy-looking error is averaging the cost to Rs 25 and quoting Rs 12,000. It feels fair because both purchases were the same size, but it assigns June's higher cost to units that were bought in January.

    The second loss is getting Rs 16,000 and ignoring the holding period. A good answer says the redemption spans two lots with two purchase dates, and that the split matters for tax.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • She redeems the remaining 800 units at Rs 40. What is the gain?
    • How would a systematic investment plan with 36 monthly purchases complicate this?
    • Why might an investor prefer to redeem from a fund where the oldest units have the smallest gain?
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