Case 049Fixed income, credit and LDIHard
A private credit fund is asked for a Rs 480 crore unitranche at 12% with 5% annual amortisation to a cold chain business with EBITDA of Rs 120 crore growing 10%. Build three years of cash flow available for debt service, debt service cover and leverage, and decide.
1The situation
Hemkund Cold Chain Logistics runs refrigerated warehouses and trucks for food and pharmaceutical companies. EBITDA is Rs 120 crore in year one and is expected to grow 10% a year. It spends Rs 20 crore a year on maintenance capex, plans Rs 40 crore of growth capex in year one for a new warehouse, pays about Rs 15 crore of tax a year and adds Rs 10 crore a year to working capital.
Its private equity owner asks your fund for a Rs 480 crore unitrancheA single loan that combines what would otherwise be senior and junior debt, at one blended interest rate. at 12% interest, with 5% of the original amount repaid each year, to refinance existing debt and pay a dividend. Your fund's minimum debt service cover is 1.2 times.
2Your task
Build three years of cash flow available for debt service, debt service cover and leverage. Do you lend as asked, and if not, on what terms?
Quick check
What is debt service cover in year one?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
As asked, the loan fails in year one: Rs 35 crore of cash against Rs 81.6 crore of debt service is cover of 0.43 times, and it is still only 1.11 times in year two. Even with the sponsor funding the growth capex, year one is 0.92 times. Lend about Rs 365 crore, roughly 3 times EBITDA, with growth capex paid by the sponsor, which gives cover of 1.21, 1.45 and 1.74 times.
Step 1How do you build cash available for debt service?
A household lender does not ask what someone earns; it asks what is left after rent, school fees and the car, because that is what pays the instalment. Cash available for debt service is EBITDA less every cash call that comes first: maintenance capex, growth capex already committed, tax and working capital. In year one that is 120 - 20 - 40 - 15 - 10 = Rs 35 crore. Debt service is interest of 12% on Rs 480 crore, Rs 57.6 crore, plus 5% amortisation, Rs 24 crore: Rs 81.6 crore.
| Rs crore | Year 1 | Year 2 | Year 3 |
|---|---|---|---|
| EBITDA | 120.0 | 132.0 | 145.2 |
| Maintenance capex | (20.0) | (20.0) | (20.0) |
| Growth capex | (40.0) | 0.0 | 0.0 |
| Tax | (15.0) | (15.0) | (15.0) |
| Working capital build | (10.0) | (10.0) | (10.0) |
| Cash for debt service | 35.0 | 87.0 | 100.2 |
| Interest at 12% | 57.60 | 54.72 | 51.84 |
| Amortisation | 24.0 | 24.0 | 24.0 |
| Debt service cover | 0.43x | 1.11x | 1.32x |
| Debt at year end | 456 | 432 | 408 |
| Debt / EBITDA | 3.80x | 3.27x | 2.81x |
Step 2Why is year one the binding test, not the leverage?
Leverage of 4.0 times falling below 3 times by year three looks comfortable, and that is what the owner's pitch will lead with. But lenders are repaid in cash each year, and in year one the growth capex takes Rs 40 crore before a rupee reaches them, so cover is 0.43 times: the company cannot pay without borrowing more or the sponsor putting in cash. Even if the sponsor funds the warehouse, cover is 0.92 times in year one and 1.11 in year two, under the 1.0 line and then just above it. Strong later years do not help a borrower who defaults in the first.
Step 3What size and terms would you offer?
Solve for the debt that passes the test in the hardest year. With growth capex paid by the sponsor, year-one cash is Rs 75 crore; at a 1.2 times minimum and a debt service of 17% of the loan, 12% interest plus 5% amortisation, the most Hemkund can carry is 75 / (1.2 x 0.17), about Rs 368 crore. Offer about Rs 365 crore, roughly 3 times EBITDA: cover is then 1.21, 1.45 and 1.74 times. Add a condition that the Rs 40 crore of growth capex is funded by sponsor equity before drawdown, a cash sweep of part of the excess cash, and a minimum cover covenant tested every quarter. The dividend the owner wanted shrinks; that is the point.
Close with what could still go wrong. Cold chain demand depends on a few large food and pharmaceutical customers, so check how concentrated revenue is and how long contracts run. Power is a large cost for refrigeration, so ask how much of a tariff increase customers absorb. And confirm the tax figure: if it rises with profits, year-three cover is lower than shown.
Where candidates lose it
The usual loss is computing cover on EBITDA, 120 over 81.6, about 1.5 times, and approving the loan. Lenders are paid from cash after capex, tax and working capital, and the growth capex sits in exactly the year the loan is most fragile.
The second is leading with leverage. Four times falling to under three looks prudent, but leverage measures the stock of debt, while default comes from the flow of cash in a single year.
What the interviewer asks next
- The sponsor offers a guarantee of year-one debt service instead of funding the capex. Is that as good?
- How would a one-year interest-only period change the year-one and year-two cover?
- What covenant package would you write for the Rs 365 crore loan?
Asked at HPS Investment Partners, Investments, London, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis): General conversation, deal experience discussion, CF build-up for one of my deal
Asked at HPS Investment Partners, Investments, London, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis): then 2 EDs (deal experience discussion, CF build-up for one of my deal), then case study
Company names and figures are illustrative.
