Case 073Macro and multi-asset scenariosHard
The central bank hikes 100 basis points when 25 was expected. Two-year yields rise 80 basis points, ten-year yields 30, the currency 3% and equities fall 6%. How would a macro fund have expressed the view in advance, and how would it size the trade on Rs 500 crore at an 8% volatility target?
1The situation
Pratidhwani Macro Fund runs Rs 500 crore with a target volatility of 8% a year, and usually holds about 4 independent ideas at roughly equal risk. Before the policy meeting, markets priced a 25 basis point hike. The fund's team read the recent inflation data as forcing a much larger move. The bank delivered 100. On the day, two-year yields rose 80 basis points, ten-year yields 30, the currency strengthened 3% and the equity index fell 6%.
Case assumptions for sizing: annual volatility of 90 basis points for two-year yields and 70 for ten-year yields, with a correlation of 0.85 between their daily changes; 7% for the currency; 18% for the equity index. Modified duration is 1.87 for a two-year swap and 6.9 for a ten-year swap.
2Your task
Which instrument expresses a hawkish surprise most cleanly, how much risk should the idea carry, and what does that mean in notional for each leg?
Quick check
The fund pays Rs 1,000 crore of two-year swaps and receives Rs 1,000 crore of ten-year swaps. Two-year yields rise 80 bp and ten-year yields 30 bp. What happens?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
Express it as a DV01-matched 2s10s flattener, sized to about 4% volatility: Rs 41.8 lakh per basis point of spread. That is about Rs 2,235 crore paying two-year and Rs 606 crore receiving ten-year. The spread narrowed 50 bp, making Rs 20.9 crore, 4.2% of NAV, more per unit of risk than paying two-year (3.6%), the currency (1.7%) or the equity short (1.3%). An equal-notional flattener would have lost Rs 5.7 crore.
Step 1Where does a hawkish surprise show up most cleanly?
If you expect one shop on a street to raise its prices, the clean bet is that shop against the street, not the city's whole shopping bill, which moves for a hundred other reasons. The view here is narrow: the bank will tighten more than the 25 basis points priced. The two-year yield is mostly the market's guess at the policy rate over the next two years, so it takes the surprise first. The ten-year yield also carries long-run growth and inflation, and a bank that tightens hard lowers both, so it rises less. A hawkish surprise therefore flattens the curve, and a flattener isolates that one effect while hedging out the general level of yields. Equities and the currency respond too, but through earnings, flows and risk appetite as well as the policy rate.
Step 2How do you compare trades measured in different units?
Basis points and percentages cannot be compared directly, so convert every move into how many years of normal volatility it represents. The equity fall of 6% is only 0.33 of a year's 18% volatility: a big headline, a small signal. The currency's 3% is 0.43. Paying two-year rates captured 0.89. The flattener's 50 bp is measured against the spread's own volatility, which is far lower than either yield's because the two yields mostly move together.
| \sigma_{s} | annual volatility of the 2s10s spread, bp |
| \sigma_{2},\ \sigma_{10} | annual volatility of two-year and ten-year yields, 90 and 70 bp |
| \rho | correlation of their daily changes, 0.85 |
Step 3How much risk should the idea carry, and what is that in notional?
The fund's 8% target on Rs 500 crore is Rs 40 crore of annual volatility. With about four independent ideas at equal risk, each can run at 8% divided by the square root of four, so the volatilities add back to the target. One idea gets 4%, Rs 20 crore a year, and dividing by the spread's 47.9 bp volatility gives Rs 41.8 lakh of P&L per basis point of spread. Each leg must carry that DV01: two-year swaps at 1.87 duration move Rs 1.87 lakh per bp per Rs 100 crore, so the leg is Rs 2,235 crore; ten-year swaps at 6.9 need only Rs 606 crore. Gross notional of Rs 2,841 crore looks large against Rs 500 crore, but notional is not risk; the DV01 is.
| Expression | Size at Rs 20 crore of risk | P&L on the day, Rs crore | % of NAV |
|---|---|---|---|
| Pay two-year | Rs 22.2 lakh per bp | 17.8 | 3.56% |
| 2s10s flattener | Rs 2,235 cr pay 2y, Rs 606 cr receive 10y | 20.9 | 4.18% |
| Long currency | Rs 286 crore | 8.6 | 1.71% |
| Short equity index | Rs 111 crore | 6.7 | 1.33% |
Step 4Why does an equal-notional flattener lose money on a correct call?
Because a ten-year swap moves 3.7 times as much per basis point as a two-year swap. Pay Rs 1,000 crore of each and the two-year leg gains Rs 15.0 crore on its 80 bp, while the ten-year leg loses Rs 20.7 crore on its 30 bp. The equal-notional trade is net long Rs 50 lakh of duration per basis point, so it is a bet on falling yields dressed up as a flattener, and it lost Rs 5.7 crore on the day the view came true.
Step 5What does the flattener protect against, and what can still go wrong?
Suppose instead that global bond markets rally and both yields fall 40 bp for reasons unrelated to the bank. The two-year payer loses Rs 8.9 crore; the matched flattener loses nothing, because a parallel move leaves the spread alone. That is the hedge the trade buys. It does not make the view safe: if the bank holds when 25 was priced, and two-year yields fall 20 bp against 5 for the ten-year, the flattener loses Rs 6.3 crore, 1.25% of NAV. The limitations are real. Correlations jump around policy days, so the hedge ratio set from normal volatility can drift; carry and roll-down cost or earn a few basis points a month and matter if the surprise is delayed; and a surprise that is partly priced before the meeting leaves less to collect. Close or cut the position once the market prices the bank's new path, because the edge was the gap, not the hike.
Where candidates lose it
The common loss is reaching for the equity short because hikes are bad for stocks. A 6% fall is only a third of a year's equity volatility, so at equal risk it was the weakest expression of the view, and equities can rise on a hike for reasons that have nothing to do with the bank.
The second is building the flattener with equal notionals. The ten-year leg carries several times the duration, so the trade becomes a duration bet and loses money even when the curve flattens exactly as forecast.
What the interviewer asks next
- How would you express the same view if only bond futures were available, not swaps?
- The two-year has already risen 40 bp before the meeting. Does the trade still make sense?
- Why might the currency weaken on a hawkish surprise in some economies?
- How would you set a stop on the flattener, and in what units?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
