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075

Case 075Fixed income, credit and LDIHard

An institution weighs a private credit fund yielding 13% gross, with 1.5% annual losses, a 1.5% fee and 10% carry over an 8% hurdle, locked for five years, against listed high yield at 9.5% with 1.2% losses and 0.6% fees. Compare net returns and say whether the illiquidity premium is being paid.

1The situation

The investment committee of a retirement trust is considering a commitment to Kaustubh Private Credit Fund I, which lends to mid-sized unlisted companies. The fund targets a gross yield of 13% on its loans, expects credit losses of 1.5% a year, and charges a 1.5% management fee on NAV plus 10% carry over an 8% hurdle, with a full catch-up for the manager. Money is locked for 5 years.

The alternative is a listed high yield bond fund: yield 9.5%, expected losses 1.2% a year, total fees 0.6%, and daily liquidity. The trust's policy asks an illiquid investment to beat its liquid alternative by at least 2 percentage points a year net of everything, a case assumption. For simplicity, treat yield less losses as the return, ignore rate moves, and assume the fund is fully invested.

2Your task

What is each option's net return, how much of the 3.5 point yield gap survives, and is the trust being paid for locking its money up for five years?

Quick check

The private credit fund yields 13% and listed high yield 9.5%. After losses, fees and carry, what is the gap in net return?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

Net of losses, fees and carry, Kaustubh returns about 9.0% a year against 7.7% for listed high yield, a premium of 1.3 points, not 3.5. Extra losses take 0.3 points, the higher fee 0.9 and carry 1.0. That falls short of the trust's 2 point requirement for a five-year lock, so on these terms the illiquidity premium is not being paid. Dropping the catch-up would lift the premium to 2.1 points.

Step 1Where does the 3.5 point yield gap go?

A job offer in another city that pays 30% more is not a 30% raise until you take off the higher rent and the longer commute. Yields work the same way. The borrower pays Kaustubh 13%, but some loans default, the manager charges a fee, and above the hurdle the manager also shares in the profit. Private credit loses 1.5 points to losses, 1.5 to the fee and 1.0 to carry, netting 9.0%; listed high yield loses 1.2 and 0.6, netting 7.7%. Of the 3.5 point gap, 0.3 goes to higher losses, 0.9 to higher fees and 1.0 to carry, leaving 1.3.

A 3.5 point yield gap shrinks to 1.3 points after losses, fees and carryKaustubh Private Credit Fund IListed high yield13.0Grossyield-1.5Creditlosses-1.5Fee-1.0Carry9.0Net9.5Grossyield-1.2Creditlosses-0.6Fees7.7Net% a year. Net premium 9.0 minus 7.7 = 1.3 points, against the trust's required 2 for a five-year lock.
Kaustubh's 13% gross yield nets 9.0% after losses, fee and carry while listed high yield's 9.5% nets 7.7%, so the 3.5 point headline gap shrinks to a 1.3 point net premium.
Step 2How does the carry bite?

After losses and the management fee the fund earns 10.0%. The trust keeps the first 8%. With a full catch-up, the manager then takes everything until it holds 10% of all the profit, which happens once the return reaches 8.89%; beyond that the split is 90 to 10. Because 10.0% is past the catch-up, the manager takes 10% of the whole 10.0%, 1.0 point, not 10% of the 2 points above the hurdle. Without a catch-up the carry would be 10% of 2 points, 0.2, and the trust would net 9.8%.

The relationship
r_{LP} = \begin{cases} r & r \le 8\% \\ 8\% & 8\% < r \le 8.89\% \\ 0.9\,r & r > 8.89\% \end{cases}
rfund return after losses and the management fee, % a year
r_{LP}what the investor keeps after carry
8.89\%the return at which a full catch-up gives the manager 10% of all profit: 8% divided by 0.9
What it says in wordsWith a full catch-up, once the fund clears about 8.9%, carry is 10% of the entire return, so Kaustubh's 10.0% becomes 9.0% for the trust.
% a yearKaustubh Private Credit Fund IListed high yieldGap
Gross yield13.09.53.5
Credit losses-1.5-1.2-0.3
Fees-1.5-0.6-0.9
Carry-1.00.0-1.0
Net return9.07.71.3
Line by line, carry and the higher fee absorb 1.9 of the 3.5 point yield gap and extra losses another 0.3, leaving a 1.3 point net premium for a five-year lock.
Step 3Is 1.3 points enough for a five-year lock?

The lock has a cost even if nothing goes wrong. The trust cannot rebalance, cannot sell in a crisis to meet pensions or buy cheaper assets, and sees quarterly valuations that move less than market prices, which makes the risk look smaller than it is. Against its own requirement of 2 points, 1.3 points is not enough, so on these terms the trust is not being paid for the illiquidity. On Rs 100 crore over five years, the net premium is worth about Rs 9.0 crore (Rs 153.9 crore against Rs 144.9 crore). The headline yields would have suggested about Rs 27 crore.

Step 4How sensitive is the answer to the loss assumption?

Losses are the number the manager knows best and the trust knows least. Hold high yield at 1.2% and the premium falls one for one with private credit losses until carry switches off. The premium reaches 2 points only if losses stay below 0.72% a year, and disappears entirely at 3.8%. In a broad credit cycle the picture is less one-sided: if losses reach 4% in private credit and 3.2% in high yield, the fund drops below its hurdle, carry vanishes, and the premium is 1.8 points, because the carry acts as a partial cushion.

The premium clears the 2-point bar only if losses stay below 0.7% a year-10+1+2+30%1%2%3%4%5%trust's required premium: 2 pointsassumed: 1.3 pointsneeds losses under 0.72%premium gone at 3.8%dashed: high yield losses rise tooPrivate credit loss rate, % a year (high yield losses 1.2% on the solid line). Premium in points.
With high yield losses at 1.2%, Kaustubh's net premium clears the trust's 2 point requirement only if its losses stay below 0.72% a year, and it falls to zero at 3.8%; at the assumed 1.5% it is 1.3 points.

So the judgement turns on terms, not the asset class. Removing the catch-up lifts the premium to 2.1 points, enough to meet the requirement on its own, which makes it the first thing to negotiate. The committee should also ask for the manager's loss record through a full credit cycle, not just recent years, and check how the fee is charged during the investment period. The limitation of the whole comparison is that both loss rates are estimates: private credit losses are reported with a lag and through the manager's own marks, so treat the 1.5% as the start of the analysis, not its conclusion.

Where candidates lose it

The common loss is comparing yields, 13% against 9.5%, and calling the 3.5 point gap the illiquidity premium. After losses, fees and carry only 1.3 points remain, and that is the number to set against the cost of a five-year lock.

The second is computing carry as 10% of the return above the hurdle. With a full catch-up, carry takes 10% of the entire return once the fund clears about 8.9%, which costs 1.0 points here, not 0.2.

What the interviewer asks next

  • How would you adjust the comparison if the fund called capital over three years and sat partly in cash?
  • Private credit loans are mostly floating rate and high yield bonds mostly fixed. How does that change the comparison when rates rise?
  • Why do quarterly marks make private credit look less volatile than listed high yield, and what does that do to an optimiser?
  • What size of commitment would you consider, given the five-year lock?
← Case 074A portfolio management service charges 1% a year plus 15% of returns above a 10% hurdle, with a high-water mark. A Rs 1 crore client earns plus 30%, minus 20% and plus 25% before fees. Work out the fees each year and compare the client's outcome with a flat 2% fee.Case 076 →Give me a two-minute pitch on Rangrez Paints: one thesis, one catalyst, one risk.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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