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Portfolio Management puzzles, solved step by step

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All topicsStatistics and forecasting9Portfolio risk maths10Logic brainteasers7Behavioural and decision traps7Probability and expected value8Bond maths10Valuation riddles8Performance measurement8Private and real asset maths8Funds, ETFs and implementation7Compounding and fee drag7Market sizing and estimation6Currency and global returns5
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  1. 010An ETF trades at 101.5 on the exchange while its indicative NAV is 100.0, and creating new units costs 0.3% of NAV. What does an authorised participant do, and what does it make per unit?Funds, ETFs and implementationCoreMutual fundsPortfolio implementation

    Try it first

    What does the authorised participant do?

    Show the worked solution

    It creates new units and sells them, keeping about 1.2 per unit, or 1.2% of NAV. The authorised participant buys the underlying basket at the NAV of 100, delivers it to the fund, receives new ETF units and sells them on the exchange at 101.5. Revenue of 101.5 less 100 for the basket and 0.3 of creation costs leaves 1.2. Its selling pushes the ETF price back toward NAV until the gap no longer covers the cost.

    Why can anyone profit from the gap at all?

    Picture a shop selling gift hampers for Rs 101.5 when the items inside cost Rs 100 at the market next door, and assembling a hamper costs Rs 0.3. Someone will buy the items, pack hampers and sell them until the hamper price falls. An ETF unit is a claim on a basket, and the creation and redemption window lets a large dealer convert one into the other, so the unit's price cannot drift far from the basket's value. The authorised participantA large dealer appointed by the fund to create and redeem ETF units in bulk directly with the fund. is that hamper maker.

    The creation route: buy the basket, swap it for units, sell the units1. Buy the basketshares at NAV 100.02. Deliver to fundplus 0.3 of costs3. Receive unitsnew ETF units4. Sell on exchangeat 101.5Per unit: 101.5 received - 100.0 basket - 0.3 costs = 1.2, about 1.2% of NAV99.0100.0101.0102.0no-profit band 99.7 to 100.3ETF at 101.5selling new units pulls the price backPrice
    The authorised participant buys the basket at 100, pays 0.3 in creation costs, receives new units and sells them at 101.5, keeping 1.2 per unit; the trade stops paying once the ETF price is back inside the band from 99.7 to 100.3.

    Where does the arbitrage stop?

    Every new unit sold adds supply on the exchange and every basket bought adds demand for the underlying shares, so the gap closes from both sides. The trade keeps paying until the premium falls to the creation cost of 0.3, so in a calm market the ETF price sits inside a band of roughly 99.7 to 100.3. Below 99.7 the trade reverses: buy cheap units, redeem them for the basket and sell the shares. The band is only as tight as the cost: an ETF holding illiquid bonds or foreign shares that trade in another time zone can show a wider gap for days, and that gap is a cost to whoever trades against it.

    The relationship
    gain=PETF−NAV−c⋅NAV=101.5−100−0.3=1.2\text{gain}=P_{ETF}-NAV-c\cdot NAV=101.5-100-0.3=1.2
    P_{ETF}the exchange price of the ETF unit, 101.5
    NAVthe indicative net asset value per unit, 100
    cthe creation cost, 0.3% of NAV
    What it says in wordsThe authorised participant keeps the premium over NAV less the cost of creating the unit.

    The portfolio management point: this machinery is why an ETF can trade close to its holdings without the fund itself selling anything. Mutual fund investors transact at NAV once a day; ETF investors transact at a market price that stays near NAV only because this arbitrage is open.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates reach for the wrong direction, buying units and redeeming them, because redeem sounds like cashing in a profit. Name the cheap side and the dear side first, and the direction follows.

    The quieter miss is forgetting the cost. A premium of 1.5 is not the profit; 1.2 is, and a premium of 0.2 is not an opportunity at all.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The ETF trades at 99.0. Walk through the trade.
    • Why do bond ETFs sometimes trade at large discounts in a stressed market?
    • Who bears the cost when an ETF persistently trades at a premium?
  2. 023A portfolio manager decides to buy 10,000 shares when the price is Rs 100. The trading desk fills 60% of the order at an average of Rs 101.2, and the rest goes unfilled as the price closes the day at Rs 104. What is the implementation shortfall?Funds, ETFs and implementationHardPortfolio implementationInstitutional asset management

    Try it first

    Which part of the shortfall is larger?

    Show the worked solution

    Rs 23,200, or 2.32% of the Rs 10 lakh intended trade. Against a paper portfolio that bought all 10,000 shares at the decision price of Rs 100, the 6,000 filled at Rs 101.2 cost Rs 7,200 in execution. The 4,000 unfilled shares missed a rise to Rs 104, an opportunity cost of Rs 16,000. The order you did not fill cost more than the one you did.

    What is the shortfall measured against?

    Think of deciding to buy a train ticket at the counter price, then finding the queue slow: you pay a bit more for some of the group's tickets, and the rest miss the train and take a dearer taxi. The cost of the trip is measured against the plan, not against what you ended up doing. Implementation shortfall compares the real portfolio with a paper portfolio that traded everything instantly at the decision price, so both the extra paid and the move missed count as cost. The idea is due to Andre Perold, and the benchmark here is Rs 100, the price when the decision was made.

    Implementation shortfall: the order you did not fill cost more than the one you didExecution cost6,000 filled x (101.2 - 100)Rs 7,200 (0.72%)Opportunity cost4,000 unfilled x (104 - 100)Rs 16,000 (1.60%)Total shortfallof the Rs 10 lakh intendedRs 23,200 (2.32%)Benchmark: the decision price of Rs 100. Both costs are measured against it,so an unfilled order is charged for the move it missed.
    Against a decision price of Rs 100, the 6,000 shares filled at Rs 101.2 cost Rs 7,200 and the 4,000 unfilled shares cost Rs 16,000 as the price rose to Rs 104, a total shortfall of Rs 23,200, or 2.32% of the intended trade.
    ComponentSharesPer share, RsCost, RsShare of Rs 10 lakh
    Execution cost6,0001.27,2000.72%
    Opportunity cost4,0004.016,0001.60%
    Total10,00023,2002.32%
    The execution and opportunity costs add to a shortfall of Rs 23,200, 2.32% of the intended Rs 10 lakh purchase.

    What should the manager take from the split?

    That trading patiently is not free. A desk that works an order slowly to keep execution cost down can lose more to the price running away, so the right trading speed depends on how fast the manager's idea is likely to be priced in. Here the price moved 4% in a day, a sign the idea was urgent, or that the buying itself pushed the price. Say the limitations: explicit costs such as commission and taxes should be added on top, and the unfilled shares are charged at the closing price by convention; had the order been cancelled deliberately, a different end point might be fairer.

    Where candidates lose it

    Most candidates measure only the execution cost, 1.2% on the filled shares, and forget that shares never bought still cost the fund. The unfilled 40% is the bigger number here.

    The second slip is the base. Express the shortfall against the whole intended trade, Rs 10 lakh, not against the Rs 6 lakh filled, or the number cannot be compared across orders.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What if the price had closed at Rs 99 instead?
    • How would you decide how fast to trade the order?
    • Why might a VWAP benchmark make the same desk look good?
  3. 038An equity fund keeps 8% of its assets in cash earning 6.5% a year, while its equities return 14%. How much return does the cash cost the fund, and when is that cost largest?Funds, ETFs and implementationCorePortfolio implementationMutual funds

    Try it first

    Roughly how much does the 8% cash holding cost the fund this year?

    Show the worked solution

    About 0.6 points a year here. Cash drag is the cash weight times the gap between what equities and cash earn: 0.08 x (14 minus 6.5) is 0.6. The fund returns 13.4% instead of 14%. The drag is largest in strong markets and turns into a cushion when equities fall: in a year equities lose 10%, the same cash saves about 1.3 points.

    Why is the cost the gap, not the whole equity return?

    Suppose you keep a little of your salary in a savings account instead of a higher-paying deposit. You have not lost the whole deposit rate on that money, only the difference between the two rates. Cash in an equity fund still earns something, so the return given up is the cash weight times the gap between the equity return and the cash return. Here that is 8% of 7.5 points, which is 0.6 of a point for the whole fund.

    Cash drag is a slope, not a fixed cost: 8% of the equity-cash gap14.0%Fully invested13.4%8% in cash-0.6drag0.08 x (14.0 - 6.5) = 0.6 points+2+1-1-2-20%-10%0%10%20%30%Equity return in the yearDrag in points (positive = cost)14%: costs 0.6-10%: cushions 1.32zero at 6.5%
    Holding 8% in cash takes the fund from 14.0% to 13.4%, a drag of 0.6 points. Because the drag is 8% of the equity-cash gap, it grows in strong markets, is zero when equities earn exactly 6.5%, and becomes a cushion of 1.32 points when equities fall 10%.

    Why does it matter most in strong markets?

    The drag scales with the equity return. In a 30% year the same 8% of cash costs about 1.9 points, in a 14% year 0.6, and in a year equities lose 10% it adds about 1.32 points. That is why cash drag shows up most in the years a fund is judged hardest: a fund that trails its benchmark in a strong rally often simply held more cash than the index, which holds none.

    The relationship
    drag=wc (Re−Rc)=0.08×(14−6.5)=0.6\text{drag} = w_c\,(R_e - R_c) = 0.08 \times (14 - 6.5) = 0.6
    w_cthe cash weight, 8%
    R_ethe equity return, 14%
    R_cthe return on cash, 6.5%
    What it says in wordsThe fund gives up the cash weight times whatever equities earned above cash.

    Funds hold cash for real reasons: redemptions, new money not yet invested, and dry powder for opportunities. The implementation answer is not zero cash but equitising it, for example by holding index futures against the cash balance so that the fund keeps market exposure while holding liquidity. Say that as the practical close, and note that futures carry their own costs and margin needs.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common slip is multiplying the cash weight by the whole equity return and saying 1.1 points, which assumes cash earns nothing. The second is treating cash drag as a fixed annual fee rather than a bet against the market that pays off only in down years.

    Give the formula, the 0.6, and then the shape: bigger in rallies, negative in falls. That second half is what separates an implementation answer from arithmetic.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How would you equitise the cash, and what does that cost?
    • A manager says the cash is a deliberate market call. How would you judge it over five years?
    • If the fund's benchmark returns 14% and the fund's stocks return 14.5%, does the fund beat the benchmark after the cash drag?
  4. 068An index fund charges 0.20% a year and keeps 1% of its assets in cash, which earns 6.5% in a year when the index returns 12%. It earns an extra 0.05% from lending securities. What is its tracking difference for the year?Funds, ETFs and implementationCoreMutual fundsPortfolio implementation

    Try it first

    What does the 1% cash holding cost the fund?

    Show the worked solution

    About -0.21%: the fund returns about 11.79% against the index's 12%. The fee takes 0.20 points. The 1% in cash earns 5.5 points less than the index, which costs 0.01 times 5.5, or 0.055 points. Securities lending adds back 0.05. Together: minus 0.20, minus 0.055, plus 0.05, a tracking difference of -0.205%. The expense ratio is most of the story.

    What is tracking difference, and how does it differ from tracking error?

    Think of a tailor copying a suit. The tracking differenceThe fund return minus the index return over a period. A steady shortfall, mostly the costs of running the fund. is how much shorter the copy comes out on average; the tracking errorThe standard deviation of the gap between fund and index returns. How unevenly the fund follows the index. is how uneven the stitching is. Tracking difference is the fund's return less the index's, and for a well-run index fund it is mostly the costs of running the fund. Investors feel it directly: it is the return they lose for holding the fund instead of the index itself.

    From index return to fund return: the fee is most of the gap11.7%11.8%11.9%12.0%12.00%Index-0.20Fee-0.055Cash drag+0.05Lending11.795%FundThe vertical axis starts at 11.7% so hundredths of a point are visible.Trackingdifference-0.21%fee share ofthe costs: 78%
    Starting from the index's 12%, the fee takes 0.20 points, cash drag 0.055 points and securities lending adds 0.05, leaving the fund at 11.795%, a tracking difference of -0.205% of which the fee is the largest part.

    Why is the cash drag so small?

    Because the cash is not idle; it earns 6.5%. Cash drag is the cash weight times the gap between the index return and the cash return, not the cash weight times the index return. Here the gap is 5.5 points and the weight 1%, so the drag is 0.055 points. In a falling market the sign flips: if the index lost 10%, the 1% in cash would add about 0.165 points and the fund would lag by less than its fee.

    The relationship
    TD=−fee−wc(Ridx−Rc)+lending=−0.20−0.01×5.5+0.05=−0.205%TD = -\text{fee} - w_c(R_{idx} - R_c) + \text{lending} = -0.20 - 0.01 \times 5.5 + 0.05 = -0.205\%
    w_cthe share of the fund held in cash, 1%
    R_idxthe index return, 12%
    R_cthe return on cash, 6.5%
    What it says in wordsTracking difference is the fee plus the cost of the cash, less any income from lending.

    Other small items sit in the same bucket and are worth naming: trading costs when the index changes its members, the timing of dividends, and taxes the index ignores but the fund pays. None usually rivals the fee. When two index funds on the same index are compared, a lower expense ratio is the first thing to check, then the reported tracking difference over several years, which the fund documents disclose; confirm the current disclosure rules for the market in question.

    Where candidates lose it

    The trap is charging the full index return on the cash holding, 1% of 12%, and overstating the drag at 0.12%. The cash earned 6.5%; only the gap is lost.

    The second loss is mixing up tracking difference with tracking error. The first is a steady shortfall in return, the second is the wobble around it. Say which one you are computing.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • If the index falls 10% and cash still earns 6.5%, what is the tracking difference?
    • Why might an index fund have a near-zero tracking difference but a high tracking error?
    • When would securities lending income be a reason for concern rather than comfort?
  5. 080A fund turns over 120% of its portfolio a year, and each round trip, selling a holding and buying its replacement, costs 40 basis points. What is the annual drag on returns from trading?Funds, ETFs and implementationWarm upPortfolio implementationMutual funds

    Try it first

    What is the annual trading drag?

    Show the worked solution

    About 0.48% a year. Turnover of 120% means the fund sells and replaces the equivalent of its whole portfolio 1.2 times a year. At 40 basis points per round trip, the drag is 1.2 x 40, or 48 basis points. On a Rs 1,000 crore fund that is Rs 4.8 crore a year, taken from returns rather than charged as a fee.

    What exactly is a round trip, and why count it that way?

    Trading in a car costs you twice: the dealer pays less than it is worth when you sell, and charges more than it is worth when you buy the next one. A fund switching one stock for another pays the same two-sided cost, so the natural unit is the round trip: one sale and one purchase together. Reported turnover is usually the lesser of purchases and sales over average assets, which counts each switch once, so 120% maps to 1.2 round trips.

    Turnover becomes round trips, and round trips become basis points of returnTurnover a year1 full round trip+0.2 = 1.2 round tripsCost per round trip40 bp: spread, impact, brokerage and taxes on one sale plus one purchaseDrag a year40 bp+8 bp = 48 bp, or 0.48% a yearWhat the investor sees against what the investor pays, basis points a yearExpense ratio, say100 bp: on the factsheetTotal cost of ownership+48148 bp
    Turnover of 120% is 1.2 round trips a year at 40 basis points each, a 48 basis point drag; beside an assumed 1.00% expense ratio, the investor's true cost is 148 basis points, and the trading part never appears on the factsheet.
    The relationship
    drag=turnover×cost per round trip=1.2×40=48 bp\text{drag} = \text{turnover} \times \text{cost per round trip} = 1.2 \times 40 = 48 \text{ bp}
    turnoverportfolio replaced per year, 120%
    cost per round tripspread, market impact, brokerage and taxes on a sale and a purchase, 40 bp
    What it says in wordsMultiply how many times the portfolio is replaced by what one replacement costs.

    Why does this matter if the expense ratio looks fine?

    The expense ratio covers the manager's fee and running costs. Trading costs are paid inside the portfolio, through worse prices and brokerage, so they reduce the return without ever appearing in the expense ratio. A fund with a modest fee and high turnover can cost more in total than a pricier fund that trades little. For a Rs 1,000 crore fund, 48 basis points is Rs 4.8 crore a year.

    Say the limitation too. The 40 basis points is an average; impact rises with trade size, so a fund that grows while keeping the same turnover usually pays more per round trip, not less.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common slip is doubling the answer to 96 basis points on the grounds that turnover counts both the buy and the sell. The usual definition already counts each switch once, and the cost per round trip already includes both legs.

    The second slip is saying the cost is already in the expense ratio. It is not, and the interviewer asks precisely to see if you know where trading costs hide.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The fund doubles in size and keeps the same turnover. What happens to cost per round trip?
    • How would you estimate a fund's trading costs from its published numbers?
    • Why do index funds usually have far lower turnover than active funds?
  6. 093Trading 10% of a stock's daily volume costs 20 basis points in market impact. If impact follows a square-root law, what does trading 40% of daily volume cost per rupee traded, and how does the total cost compare?Funds, ETFs and implementationHardPortfolio implementationQuantitative asset management

    Try it first

    How much larger is the total impact cost of the 40% order?

    Show the worked solution

    About 40 basis points per rupee, and 8 times the total cost. Under a square-root law, cost per rupee rises with the square root of size: four times the size is twice the cost per rupee, 40 basis points. Total cost is size times cost per rupee, so it rises four times two, or eight times. On Rs 50 crore of daily volume, Rs 1 lakh becomes Rs 8 lakh.

    Why does a bigger order cost more per rupee?

    Selling one flat in a building is easy at the going price; selling ten at once means working down to buyers who would only pay less. A large order uses up the willing counterparties near the current price and has to reach further, so each extra rupee traded moves the price more than the one before. Empirical studies of trading costs across markets find that the cost per rupee grows roughly with the square root of the order's share of volume, a rule practitioners use widely as a first estimate.

    Four times the size, twice the cost per rupee, eight times the total10%20%30%40%50%20 bp40 bp60 bp80 bpif cost rose in line with size20 bp40 bpOrder size, share of daily volumeDaily volume Rs 50 crore10%: Rs 5 crore x 20 bpRs 1 lakh40%: Rs 20 crore x 40 bpRs 8 lakhSplit over 4 days at 10%about Rs 4 lakhif impact fades overnight
    Cost per rupee rises along a square-root curve from 20 basis points at 10% of daily volume to 40 at 40%, so the total cost on a Rs 50 crore volume stock rises from Rs 1 lakh to Rs 8 lakh, eight times, while spreading the order over four days would cost about Rs 4 lakh.
    The relationship
    c(q)=20q10% bp,total∝q⋅c(q)∝q3/2c(q) = 20\sqrt{\frac{q}{10\%}}\ \text{bp}, \qquad \text{total} \propto q \cdot c(q) \propto q^{3/2}
    qorder size as a share of daily volume
    c(q)impact cost per rupee traded
    What it says in wordsCost per rupee grows with the square root of size, so total cost grows with size to the power one and a half.

    What does the portfolio manager do with this?

    Two things. Because total cost grows faster than size, spreading a large order over several days is usually cheaper: four days at 10% each costs about Rs 4 lakh against Rs 8 lakh in one go, provided the price impact of one day's trading has largely faded by the next and the price does not drift away meanwhile. And a strategy's capacity is limited: a fund that doubles in size pays about 2.8 times the rupee impact on each rebalance, which eats into returns quickly.

    Say the limits. The square-root law is an empirical average, with a coefficient that differs by stock and market conditions, and splitting an order adds timing risk: if the information behind the trade leaks or the price moves, waiting costs more than impact would have.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common slip is answering two times, applying the square root to the total cost. The law describes cost per rupee; the total picks up the size again.

    The second loss is stopping at the number. Say what follows from it: large orders get split, and strategy capacity falls as assets grow.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • At what share of daily volume does cost per rupee reach 60 basis points?
    • Why might splitting the order over four days cost more, not less?
    • How would you estimate the capacity of a small-cap strategy from this rule?
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