Portfolio Management puzzles, solved step by step
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002A trading book's one-day 99% value at risk is Rs 2 crore. What are its 10-day and its one-month (21 trading day) value at risk under the usual scaling rule, and when does that rule fail?AQR Capital ManagementGreenwich · 2022
Try it first
Pick the 10-day value at risk before you calculate.
Show the worked solution
About Rs 6.3 crore over 10 days and Rs 9.2 crore over 21 days. With independent daily returns, variance adds across days, so volatility and value at risk scale with the square root of time: 2 x the root of 10 and 2 x the root of 21. The rule fails when returns trend or mean revert, when tails are fat, and when the book changes during the period.
Why the square root of time and not time itself?
Think of a person taking random steps left or right. After a hundred steps they are rarely a hundred steps from the start, because the left steps cancel the right ones; the typical distance is about ten, the square root of a hundred. Daily returns behave the same way when each day is independent. Variances add across independent days, so the spread of a ten-day return is the daily spread times the square root of ten, not times ten. Value at risk at a fixed confidence level is a multiple of that spread, so it scales the same way: Rs 2 crore becomes Rs 6.32 crore over ten days and Rs 9.17 crore over 21.
Scaled by the square root of time, a one-day value at risk of Rs 2 crore becomes about Rs 6.3 crore at ten days and Rs 9.2 crore at 21 days, far below the Rs 20 crore and Rs 42 crore that scaling by the number of days would give. The relationship\text{VaR}_1 the one-day value at risk, Rs 2 crore T the holding period in trading days What it says in wordsMultiply the one-day figure by the square root of the number of days, which is valid only for independent, identically spread daily returns and an unchanged book.When does the rule give the wrong answer, and in which direction?
The rule rests on three assumptions, and each one breaks in real markets. If returns trend, so a bad day tends to follow a bad day, the true ten-day loss is larger than Rs 6.3 crore; if they mean revert, it is smaller. Fat tails make the 99% point further out than a normal curve suggests, and the ratio between the tail and the spread need not hold across horizons. And a book is not frozen: over a month a desk cuts losing positions, which the scaling ignores. Say which way each one pushes the number and the interviewer knows you understand the rule rather than having memorised it.
One more thing worth saying: the scaling also assumes the expected daily return is zero. Over a day that is harmless. Over a year, drift matters and a simple square root rule starts to overstate the loss for a portfolio with a positive expected return.
Where candidates lose it
The fast wrong answer is Rs 20 crore, which treats ten independent days as ten worst days in a row. Candidates who know the square root rule sometimes lose the point anyway by stating it without its assumptions.
The follow-up is almost always when it fails. Have the three failures ready, trending returns, fat tails and a changing book, and say in which direction each pushes the number.
What the interviewer asks next
- If daily returns have a positive autocorrelation of 0.2, is the true 10-day value at risk above or below Rs 6.3 crore?
- Why do regulators ask for a 10-day horizon rather than one day?
- What is the annual value at risk under the same rule, using 250 trading days?
Asked at AQR Capital Management, Quantitative Research, Greenwich, 2022 (Wall Street Oasis):
Specific statistics questions on financial concepts. daily vs monthly return, VAR, more that i don't remember
058Every stock in a market has 35% volatility and every pair of stocks has a correlation of 0.25. What is the volatility of an equally weighted portfolio of 1 stock, of 10 stocks, and of infinitely many?Northern TrustChicago · 2025Northern TrustChicago · 2025
Try it first
With infinitely many stocks, where does portfolio volatility settle?
Show the worked solution
35% for one stock, about 20% for ten, and a floor of 17.5% for infinitely many. Portfolio variance is the stock variance times one over n, plus the correlation times what is left. With ten stocks that is 0.1225 times 0.325, a volatility of 20.0%. As n grows the one-over-n part vanishes and only the correlation term remains: 35% times the square root of 0.25, or 17.5%.
Why does adding stocks lower risk at all?
Ten shops in ten different towns do not all have a bad week at once; ten shops in one mall often do. Some of what moves a stock is its own news and some is the market everyone shares. Stock-specific shocks cancel out as you add names, because one company's bad quarter is offset by another's good one, but the shared market shock hits every name together and does not cancel. Correlation measures how much of each stock's movement is shared.
The relationshipsigma each stock's volatility, 35% rho the correlation between any two stocks, 0.25 n the number of stocks, equally weighted What it says in wordsPortfolio variance is a shrinking stock-specific part plus a fixed shared part, and only the shared part survives as the portfolio grows.Portfolio volatility falls from 35% with one stock to 20.0% with ten and then flattens towards a floor of 17.5%, because adding names removes stock-specific risk but cannot remove the risk all the stocks share. How much of the benefit do the first ten stocks deliver?
Most of it. Going from one stock to ten cuts volatility from 35% to 20.0%, about 86% of the whole distance to the floor. Going from ten to thirty takes it only to 18.4%. Diversification pays off quickly and then almost stops, and the level where it stops is set by correlation, not by the number of holdings. That is why a manager worried about risk gains more from adding assets that are less correlated than from adding a fortieth stock of the same kind.
Say the limitation. Correlations are not fixed: in a sell-off they tend to rise together, which raises the floor exactly when diversification is needed. Real stocks also differ in volatility and correlation, so this uniform market is a teaching model; the shape of the curve survives, the exact numbers do not.
Where candidates lose it
The trap is saying diversification takes risk to zero, or reaching for the correlation without the square root and answering 8.75%. The floor is the square root of the shared variance, so it is volatility times the square root of the correlation.
The second miss is getting 20% for ten stocks by guesswork and being unable to show it. Write the variance formula first and plug in: 0.1225 times 0.1 plus 0.9 times 0.25.
What the interviewer asks next
- What correlation would make a 10-stock portfolio half as risky as one stock?
- Why do correlations tend to rise in a market sell-off, and what does that do to this floor?
- How would you lower the floor itself rather than approach it?
Asked at Northern Trust, Asset Management, Chicago, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis):
First one was more technical and asked about my understanding of AM, portfolio diversification and strategy
Asked at Northern Trust, Asset Management, Chicago, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis):Asked about my understanding of asset management, portfolio diversification and strategy
083Two trading desks each have a one-day 95% value at risk of Rs 10 lakh, and their daily P&Ls have a correlation of 0.3. Assuming normal returns, what is the combined value at risk, and how big is the diversification benefit?BlackRockNew York · 2026
Try it first
Your first estimate of the combined value at risk?
Show the worked solution
About Rs 16.1 lakh, a diversification benefit of about Rs 3.9 lakh. Under normal returns value at risk is a fixed multiple of standard deviation, so it combines the same way: the square root of 10 squared plus 10 squared plus 2 x 0.3 x 10 x 10, which is the square root of 260. Adding the two desks' figures would overstate the risk by Rs 3.9 lakh.
Why can you not just add the two numbers?
Two friends each walk 10 minutes from a crossing, one north and one north-east. They do not end up 20 minutes apart; the angle between their paths matters. Under normal returns, a desk's value at risk is a fixed multiple of its standard deviation, and standard deviations combine like arrows: the angle between them is set by the correlation. Only at a correlation of 1 do the arrows point the same way and add to 20.
Placing the two Rs 10 lakh risks head to tail at the angle set by a 0.3 correlation gives a combined value at risk of Rs 16.1 lakh, against Rs 20 lakh if they moved together and Rs 14.1 lakh if they were uncorrelated. The relationship10 each desk's one-day 95% value at risk, Rs lakh 0.3 the correlation between the desks' daily P&Ls What it says in wordsSquare each desk's figure, add twice the correlation times their product, and take the square root.What assumption is doing the work, and when does it fail?
The square-root rule holds only when returns are jointly normal, or close to it, so that value at risk is a clean multiple of standard deviation. With fat tails or options in the book, value at risk need not be subadditive, and the combined figure can even exceed the sum. Correlations also rise in a crisis, so the Rs 3.9 lakh benefit is thinnest on exactly the days it is needed. Firms often report both the diversified total and the sum of the parts for that reason.
Where candidates lose it
The fast wrong answer is Rs 20 lakh, which quietly assumes a correlation of 1. The interviewer then asks why banks bother measuring correlation at all, and the candidate has nowhere to go.
The second loss is giving Rs 16.1 lakh without the normality condition. Say it: the square-root rule is a property of standard deviation, and value at risk inherits it only under normal returns.
What the interviewer asks next
- At what correlation is the combined value at risk exactly Rs 15 lakh?
- How much does each desk contribute to the combined figure?
- Why is expected shortfall preferred over value at risk for limits?
Asked at BlackRock, Restructuring, New York, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis):
Techincal and behavioral (VAR, market views, stock valuation) why blackrock, python experience?
096A manager holds the index but overweights stock A by 5 percentage points and underweights stock B by 5 points. A has 30% volatility, B has 25%, and they correlate at 0.6. What tracking error does this pair of bets create?MSCIMonterrey · 2013
Try it first
Before working it: is the tracking error above or below the 1.5% that the A bet alone would create?
Show the worked solution
A tracking error of about 1.25% a year. Tracking error is the volatility of the active weights. A's bet contributes (5% x 30%) squared, 2.25; B's contributes (5% x 25%) squared, 1.5625; and because the bets are opposite on correlated stocks, the covariance term is minus 2.25. The sum is 1.5625, whose square root is 1.25%.
Why does adding a second bet reduce the risk?
Buying an umbrella and selling a raincoat leaves you with little net exposure to rain, because both move with the weather. Overweighting A and underweighting B, when the two stocks tend to move together, is partly a hedge: when both rise, the gain on A is partly offset by the shortfall on B. Tracking error measures the risk left after that offset.
The variance of the active bets is A's own term 2.25 plus B's 1.5625 minus a covariance term of 2.25, which leaves 1.5625 and a tracking error of 1.25%, against 1.95% if the stocks were unrelated and 2.46% if both bets pointed the same way. The relationshipw_A, w_B active weights, +5% and -5% sigma_A, sigma_B volatilities, 30% and 25% rho correlation, 0.6 What it says in wordsTracking error is the portfolio volatility formula applied to the active weights instead of the holdings.What is the neat coincidence, and what does it hide?
Here the covariance term exactly cancels A's own variance, so the answer equals B's bet alone, 5% x 25% = 1.25%. That is a coincidence of these numbers, not a rule: the covariance term is 2 x 0.6 x 30 x 25, which happens to equal 30 squared. Change the correlation to 0.5 and the answer moves. The general lesson holds, though: tracking error depends on the size of the bets and on how much they cancel.
Say the limits. Correlations are estimated and unstable, so a pair that looks like a hedge in calm markets can decouple when a stock-specific event hits. Real tracking error also includes every other small active weight, and many small bets can add up to more than one large one.
Where candidates lose it
The common slip is adding the two bets' risks, 1.5% plus 1.25%, as if they were independent and in the same direction. That ignores both the correlation and the opposite signs of the weights.
The quieter slip is getting the sign of the covariance term wrong. The weights have opposite signs, so the term is negative; say that out loud before plugging in numbers.
What the interviewer asks next
- At what correlation would the tracking error be zero?
- What tracking error would a 2% overweight in a stock with 40% volatility add on its own?
- How would you decompose a portfolio's tracking error into contributions from each bet?
Asked at MSCI, Financial Tools, Monterrey, 2013 (Wall Street Oasis):
What's the tracking error formula?
