Case 063Returns attribution and value creationHard
Leverage choice: the same business at 10x, financed with 3x or 6x debt at 10%. Work the base case IRR for each, then a downside where EBITDA falls 25% in year 2. Which structure do you choose?
1The situation
Vanshika Laboratories runs diagnostic testing labs and earns EBITDA of Rs 120 crore, growing 8% a year in the plan. A fund will pay 10x, Rs 1,200 crore, and exit at 10x in year 5. Cash before interest is 50% of EBITDA and all cash after interest repays debt; if cash falls short of interest, the shortfall is borrowed on a revolver at the same 10%.
Two structures are on the table: 3x debt, Rs 360 crore, with Rs 840 crore of equity; or 6x debt, Rs 720 crore, with Rs 480 crore of equity. Both at 10%. The downside case has EBITDA falling 25% in year 2, after a lab accreditation problem, and growing 8% a year from that lower level.
2Your task
Give the IRR for each structure in the base case and the downside, explain why leverage helps so little here, and say which structure you would choose and why.
Quick check
Before working it: at 10x with 10% debt, how much does doubling leverage from 3x to 6x add to the base case IRR?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
Base case: 14% at 3x and 17% at 6x. Downside: 3% at 3x and -3% at 6x, a loss. Choose 3x. At a 10x price and 10% interest the business earns barely more than the debt costs, so extra leverage adds about 3 points in the plan and takes away about 6 in the downside, and at 6x cash does not cover interest even in the base year 1. Leverage raises the average and the chance of losing money together; here the first is small and the second is large.
Step 1Why does leverage help so little in the base case?
Because leverage only adds what the asset earns above the cost of the debt. Think of borrowing at 10% to buy a shop earning 10% on its price: you gain only if the shop grows, and you lose on every rupee if it does not. At 10x the EBITDA yield is 10%, the same as the interest rate, so the spread leverage works on is the 8% growth and nothing else; doubling debt lifts the base IRR from 14.3% to 17.2%. At 6x the Rs 72 crore of year 1 interest exceeds Rs 64.8 crore of cash, so the revolver grows in year 1 even on plan.
| Structure and case | Equity in | Debt at exit | Exit EV | Exit equity | MOIC | IRR |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 3x, base | 840 | 122 | 1,763 | 1,641 | 1.95x | 14.3% |
| 6x, base | 480 | 702 | 1,763 | 1,061 | 2.21x | 17.2% |
| 3x, downside | 840 | 233 | 1,224 | 991 | 1.18x | 3.4% |
| 6x, downside | 480 | 813 | 1,224 | 412 | 0.86x | -3.0% |
Step 2What does the downside do to each structure?
The same hit to EBITDA, a very different hit to equity. Exit value falls to Rs 1,224 crore in both; at 3x that still covers Rs 233 crore of debt and returns 1.18x, while at 6x debt has compounded to Rs 813 crore and the sponsor gets back 0.86x. That is the equity cushionThe share of the purchase price funded by equity. The thicker it is, the further value can fall before lenders are at risk and the sponsor is wiped out. at work: at 3x equity is 70% of the price and absorbs a 25% fall; at 6x it is 40% and the interest keeps eating while EBITDA is down.
Step 3How do you weigh a small gain against a large loss?
Put a probability on the downside and compare expected outcomes, then look at the worst case on its own. With a 70% chance of the plan, the expected IRR is about 11% at 3x and 11% at 6x, and the 6x structure also carries a revolver that grows in year 1 even on plan, which is a covenant conversation waiting to happen. A structure that cannot pay its interest from cash in a good year is not a structure; it is a bet that the exit multiple holds. The 3x structure earns less on paper and keeps the fund in control of the company in every case shown.
Step 4When would 6x be the right answer?
When the spread is wide and the cash is steady. At 7x entry the EBITDA yield is over 14%, the gap to a 10% coupon is wide, and the same 6x of debt would add far more to the base case; and a business with contracted revenue, not a lab that can lose accreditation, can carry interest close to its cash. So the answer the interviewer wants is conditional: leverage is a tool whose value depends on the entry yield against the cost of debt and on how much the cash can fall. Here both conditions argue for less. The limitation: the downside case is one path, and a real model would test a slower recovery and a lower exit multiple, both of which hurt 6x more.
Where candidates lose it
The usual loss is assuming more leverage always means a higher IRR and comparing only the base cases. At a 10x price and 10% debt the spread is thin, so the base gain is small and the downside loss is large; the question is built so the answer is the lower leverage.
The second is letting the model ignore the shortfall. When cash is below interest, the debt grows; a model that floors the repayment at zero but does not add the shortfall understates the 6x downside by about Rs 93 crore of debt.
What the interviewer asks next
- The debt costs 7% instead of 10%. Does 6x become the better choice?
- Lenders offer 6x with a PIK toggle on the top tranche. How does that change the downside?
- What covenant would break first at 6x in the downside, and in which year?
- How would a private credit fund think about the same two structures from the lender's seat?
Asked at Ares Management, Generalist, Los Angeles, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis): Series of interviews, followed by a 4-hour LBO case, then superday.
Company names and figures are illustrative.
