Case 049Fixed income and cash managementHard
A client bought Rs 1 crore of a bank's perpetual bond at 102, sold to him as a safe 9%. Work out the yield if it is called at par in three years, what happens if it is not called, and the write-down risk it carries.
1The situation
Hemant Joshi-Pai, 63 and retired, bought Rs 1 crore face value of a perpetual bond issued by an invented private bank, paying Rs 1.02 crore, a price of 102. It pays a 9% coupon and has no maturity date. The bank may call it at par in three years. He was told it was a safe 9% from a bank.
The bond is a capital instrument: the bank can skip coupons without it counting as a default, and the terms allow the bond to be written down if the bank's capital falls below a trigger or a regulator declares it non-viable. For the case, use illustrative chances of 85% that it is called, 12% that it is not called and the market then demands 11%, and 3% that it is written down after one coupon. Compare with 3-year AAA paper at 7.2%.
2Your task
What does Hemant earn if the bond is called? What happens to his money if it is not, and if it is written down? Is it a safe 9%?
Quick check
If the bond is called at par in three years, what is Hemant's yield?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
If called, Hemant earns about 8.2%; if not called, the price could fall to about 82 and his three-year return to about 2.4% a year; if written down, he loses almost everything. Weighting the illustrative branches, his Rs 102 is worth about 121 after three years, less than the 124 from AAA paper at 7.2%. The 9% is the good branch, not the expected return, and the worst branch behaves like equity.
Step 1Why is the call yield lower than the coupon?
Paying Rs 102 for a Rs 100 voucher that also pays interest means the extra Rs 2 is lost when the voucher is redeemed. Bought above par, a bond that is called at par returns less than its coupon: 9% a year less the 2 points of premium spread over three years gives a yield to call of about 8.2%. That is the best realistic outcome, and it is already below the 9% he was quoted.
Step 2What happens if the bank does not call it?
Banks usually call these bonds when they can refinance more cheaply, and skip the call when they cannot, which tends to be when the bank or the market is under strain. Then the bond has no maturity, and its price becomes the coupon divided by the yield the market demands: at 11%, 9 divided by 0.11 is about 81.8. Hemant keeps the coupons, if they are paid, but the bond would be worth about 20% less than he paid, and his three-year return falls to about 2.4% a year.
Step 3And the worst branch?
This is the branch that separates the product from a bank deposit. A write-downA clause letting the bank reduce the bond principal, possibly to zero, when its capital falls below a set level or the regulator steps in, without that counting as a default. can wipe out the principal while the bank carries on, so the bondholder can lose everything even if depositors lose nothing. In that branch Hemant receives one 9% coupon and loses the Rs 1.02 crore. That is an equity-like loss on a product he was told was safe.
Step 4So is it a safe 9%?
No, and saying so is the job, gently, because the client was sold something he did not understand. On these illustrative odds, the expected three-year value, about 121.3 per 102, is below plain AAA paper, so the extra coupon does not pay for the risks he is carrying. For a retired client living on the income, the question is not whether the bank is likely to fail, but whether he could live with the not-called or written-down branch. Regulators have tightened who such bonds may be sold to after past write-downs; check the current rules and the bank's capital position before deciding whether to hold.
Where candidates lose it
Candidates treat the call date as a maturity and quote a three-year yield as if it were certain. The whole risk of the product sits in the words the bank may call it.
The second miss is stopping at the call yield and the non-call price, and never mentioning the write-down. That branch is small in probability and total in loss, and it is the reason these bonds are not deposits.
What the interviewer asks next
- The bank skips one coupon but keeps paying depositors. Is that a default?
- How would you size a perpetual bond in a retired client's income portfolio, if at all?
- What would the price do if the bank's capital ratio fell close to the trigger?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
