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081

Case 081Tax-aware portfolio movesCore

A client holds Rs 1.5 crore in regular mutual fund plans with a Rs 50 lakh embedded gain. Moving to direct plans saves 0.8% a year but triggers capital gains tax at an illustrative 12.5%. How many years does it take to break even?

1The situation

Omkar Raghavan holds Rs 1.5 crore in the regular plans of four equity funds, bought over the last eight years. The units carry Rs 50 lakh of long-term gain. The same funds' direct plans cost 0.8 points a year less, because they carry no distributor commission. Switching from a regular plan to a direct plan is treated as a redemption and a fresh purchase, so the gain is taxed now.

Use an illustrative 12.5% on long-term equity gains, ignore any annual exemption for the first pass, and assume the regular plans return 10% a year after costs. Tell him to confirm current rates before acting.

2Your task

When does the switch pay for its tax, and how would you make it cheaper?

Quick check

Roughly how long before the lower fee repays the tax?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

About five to six years: the simple payback is 5.2 years and the account values cross at about 5.9. The switch costs Rs 6.25 lakh of tax now and saves about Rs 1.2 lakh a year, growing with the portfolio. For a client holding ten years or more it is worth doing, and it gets cheaper when done in tranches that use the annual exemption, starting with the units that carry the least gain.

Step 1What is being traded against what?

A one-off cost against a yearly saving. It is the same sum as replacing an old air conditioner: you pay for the new one today and the lower electricity bill pays it back over some years. Here the upfront cost is Rs 6.25 lakh of tax on the Rs 50 lakh gain, and the yearly saving is 0.8% of Rs 1.5 crore, Rs 1.2 lakh, so the simple payback is 5.2 years. The 0.8 points is the gap between a regular plan and a direct planThe version of a mutual fund bought without a distributor, carrying no commission and so a lower expense ratio, with the same portfolio. of the same fund.

Step 2Why is the account-value break-even later than the simple payback?

Because the Rs 6.25 lakh paid in tax would otherwise have kept growing. The switch path starts at Rs 1.4375 crore and grows at 10.8%; the stay path starts at Rs 1.5 crore and grows at 10%. The switch path overtakes at about 5.9 years and is about Rs 11.8 lakh ahead by year ten, because the fee saving compounds on a growing base while the tax was paid once.

Switch minus stay: Rs 6.25 lakh behind on day one, ahead after the crossing-5+5+100Rs lakhYr 0Yr 1Yr 2Yr 3Yr 4Yr 5Yr 6Yr 7Yr 8Yr 9Yr 10-6.25: the tax paid on day one+11.8Crosses zero at 5.9 yearssimple payback 5.2 yearsIllustrative: regular plans return 10% a year after costs; direct plans 10.8%
Switching to direct plans costs Rs 6.25 lakh of tax, so the switch starts Rs 6.25 lakh behind staying, but growing 0.8 points faster it crosses zero at about 5.9 years and leads by Rs 11.8 lakh at year ten.
The relationship
t∗=ln⁡(1.5/1.4375)ln⁡(1.108/1.10)≈5.9 yearst^{*} = \frac{\ln(1.5 / 1.4375)}{\ln(1.108 / 1.10)} \approx 5.9 \text{ years}
1.5value if he stays, Rs crore
1.4375value after paying Rs 6.25 lakh of tax
1.108 / 1.10the direct plan's growth relative to the regular plan's
What it says in wordsThe break-even is how long the faster-growing, smaller pot takes to catch the slower, larger one.
Step 3Is the tax really a cost at all?

Partly, and this is the sharper point to make in the room. If Omkar will sell these units some day anyway, the Rs 6.25 lakh is tax he owes already; the switch only brings the payment forward, so the true cost is the growth lost on that sum, not the sum itself. On that view the switch is ahead much sooner. The five-to-six-year figure is the cautious answer for a client who might hold until death or never realise the gain.

Step 4How do you make the switch cheaper?

Three moves, each with a number attached. Switch in yearly tranches sized so the realised gain sits within the annual exemption, which the client must confirm, so part of the move is tax-free each year. Switch the units with the smallest gains first, since they carry the fee saving at the least tax. And send every new SIP to the direct plan from today, which costs nothing. The one thing not to do is leave the whole Rs 1.5 crore where it is because the tax looks large, since every year of waiting costs another Rs 1.2 lakh.

YearStay, Rs croreSwitch, Rs croreSwitch minus stay, Rs lakh
01.5001.438-6.2
21.8151.765-5.0
42.1962.167-3.0
62.6572.660+0.2
83.2153.265+5.0
103.8914.009+11.8
The switch trails by Rs 6.25 lakh on day one, narrows the gap each year, turns positive between year five and year six, and is Rs 11.8 lakh ahead by year ten.

Where candidates lose it

The common error is comparing the tax with one year's saving, Rs 6.25 lakh against Rs 1.2 lakh, and calling the switch a bad idea. The saving recurs every year and grows with the portfolio; the tax is paid once.

The second is forgetting that the switch is a sale. Candidates who describe it as a free transfer between plans lose the interviewer at once, because the whole question is about the tax it triggers.

What the interviewer asks next

  • Omkar plans to spend the money in three years. Does the switch still make sense?
  • Two of his funds are in a loss. Which units would you switch first, and why?
  • His distributor says he gives advice worth the 0.8%. How would you test that claim?
← Case 080A client's Rs 2 crore portfolio has a 70/30 equity to debt target and has drifted to 78/22. What exactly must be sold and bought to get back, and are there cheaper ways to do it?Case 082 →A family has Rs 40 crore, 75% of it in three commercial properties earning a 4% net yield. Plan a reduction to 40% over five years and show what happens to the family's income along the way.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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