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027

Case 027Options and volatility tradingHard

A desk holds a variance swap struck at 25 volatility on Rs 1 crore vega notional. What does it pay if realised volatility is 35 or 15, and why is a delta-hedged straddle not the same trade?

1The situation

Shilpika Structured is long a three-month variance swap on an invented index, struck at 25 volatility points with a vega notional of Rs 1 crore. At maturity it receives the variance notional times the difference between realised variance and the strike variance, with volatility quoted in points so that 25 volatility is 625 variance points.

A colleague argues that a delta-hedged at-the-money straddle with the same vega is the same bet on volatility, and cheaper to run.

2Your task

Compute the payoff at a realised volatility of 35 and of 15, explain the asymmetry, and explain what a delta-hedged straddle pays instead.

Quick check

Realised volatility comes in at 35, 10 points above the strike. Roughly what does the swap pay?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

The swap pays Rs 12 crore at 35 and loses Rs 8 crore at 15. Vega notional of Rs 1 crore at a 25 strike is Rs 2 lakh per variance point, and it pays on realised variance minus 625. Because variance is volatility squared, the payoff is convex: a 10 point rise earns more than a 10 point fall costs. A delta-hedged straddle earns on volatility only near its strike, so its result depends on the path.

Step 1How do you turn vega notional into money?

The contract pays on variance, but traders think in volatility, so it is sized in vega notionalThe rough profit or loss for a one point move in volatility near the strike. Dividing it by twice the strike gives the variance notional.. Near the strike, one volatility point is worth about 2 x 25 = 50 variance points, so the variance notional is Rs 1 crore divided by 50, which is Rs 2 lakh per variance point. At 35 realised, variance is 1,225 against 625, a gain of 600 points, or Rs 12 crore. At 15 realised, variance is 225, a shortfall of 400 points, a loss of Rs 8 crore.

The relationship
Payoff=Nvar (σR2−K2),Nvar=Nvega2K=1 crore50=2 lakh\text{Payoff} = N_{var}\,(\sigma_R^2 - K^2), \qquad N_{var} = \frac{N_{vega}}{2K} = \frac{1\ \text{crore}}{50} = 2\ \text{lakh}
\sigma_Rrealised volatility in points over the life
Kstrike volatility, 25
N_{vega}vega notional, Rs 1 crore
N_{var}variance notional per variance point
What it says in wordsThe swap pays a fixed amount per point of realised variance above the strike's variance, so the payoff in volatility terms is a curve, not a line.
Step 2Why is the payoff lopsided?

Think of the area of a square tile. Going from 25 cm to 35 cm adds 600 square centimetres; going from 25 cm to 15 cm removes only 400. Variance is volatility squared in the same way. So a long variance swap gains more from a move up in volatility than it loses from the same move down, and the straight line of Rs 1 crore per point understates both the gain and the cushion. That curvature is why variance swaps usually strike above the at-the-money implied volatility: the buyer is paying for the convexity.

Variance swap payoff against realised volatility, Rs crore-10+10+200515253545Realised volatility over the life, %+12 at 35-8 at 15straight line, Rs 1 crore a pointstraddle bandSwap: 2 lakh x (realised squared - 625)
Shilpika's variance swap pays Rs 12 crore at 35 realised and loses Rs 8 crore at 15, more on the upside than the straight-line Rs 10 crore either way, while a delta-hedged straddle's result can land anywhere in the band between half and all of the swap's payoff depending on the path.
Step 3Why is a delta-hedged straddle a different bet?

A delta-hedged option earns, each day, half its gammaHow fast an option delta changes as the stock moves. High gamma means rehedging captures more profit from each move. times the squared move, minus what the time decay costs. The straddle's cash gamma is highest at the strike and fades as spot moves away. With three months left and 25 volatility, a straddle whose stock has drifted 15% above the strike earns only about 0.57 of its at-the-money rate from each squared move, and about 0.40 if the stock is 15% below. The variance swap is built to have the same sensitivity at every spot level, so it collects every squared move equally.

Where each position earns from a squared move0.51.075%85%100%115%125%Spot as a share of the strikevariance swap: same everywhere0.57 at 115%0.40 at 85%straddle: peaks at the strike
A three-month at-the-money straddle's cash gamma falls to 0.57 of its peak when spot is 15% above the strike and 0.40 when 15% below, while a variance swap's sensitivity is the same at every spot level.

Now compare two paths that both realise 35. On the first, the index chops around the strike all quarter; the straddle collects close to the swap's payoff. On the second, the index trends 15% higher in the first month and then swings violently; most of the variance arrives where the straddle has little gamma, and it collects perhaps half. The swap pays on realised variance wherever the stock goes; the straddle pays on realised variance weighted by where the moves happen. On the downside the same weighting cushions the straddle's losses, so the colleague is right that it is cheaper to run and wrong that it is the same trade.

State the limits. The straddle picture assumes continuous hedging at the right implied volatility; discrete hedging adds noise of its own. And the swap's convexity cuts both ways for a seller: a short variance swap has unlimited exposure to a crash, because realised variance has no ceiling. Desks cap variance swaps for exactly that reason.

Where candidates lose it

The common loss is computing the payoff linearly, Rs 1 crore per volatility point, which gives 10 either way. Vega notional is a sizing convention at the strike; the contract settles on variance, so the answer must be squared.

The second is agreeing that a delta-hedged straddle replicates the swap. It replicates it only while the stock sits near the strike. Candidates who miss the gamma weighting cannot explain why the two P and Ls differ on the same realised volatility.

What the interviewer asks next

  • At what realised volatility does the swap lose Rs 5 crore?
  • How is a variance swap replicated with a strip of options, and why are the strikes weighted by one over strike squared?
  • Why do dealers cap variance swaps, and what does the cap do to the fair strike?
  • How would a volatility swap differ in payoff and in fair strike?
← Case 026You and three computer quoters make markets on the sum of five cards drawn from one suit numbered 1 to 13. Each bot has seen one card and its mid is 37, 33 or 39. What did each bot see, and where do you quote?Case 028 →The offers are 5,000 shares at 100.10, 8,000 at 100.20 and 12,000 at 100.35 around a mid of 100.00. You must buy 20,000 shares now. What is your average price and your impact against mid?

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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