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033

Case 033Risk measurement and limitsCore

Given twenty days of desk P and L that include one very large loss, compute the 95% historical VaR, the normal VaR and the expected shortfall, and say which the risk committee should see.

BLBlackRockNew York · 2026

1The situation

Ushmaka Capital's equity desk reports these daily P and L figures for the last 20 trading days, in Rs lakh: 3, -5, 8, -2, 1, -12, 4, 6, -3, -48, 2, 7, -6, 5, -1, 9, -4, 3, -8, 2.

The minus 48 came on a day a large holding fell sharply on a profit warning. The desk head wants the 95% one-day VaR reported as Rs 12 lakh.

2Your task

Compute the 95% historical VaR, the 95% normal VaR and the expected shortfall, explain why they differ, and recommend what the committee should see.

Quick check

Which measure changes if the worst day had been minus 20 instead of minus 48?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

Historical VaR is Rs 12 lakh, normal VaR is about Rs 22 lakh, and expected shortfall is Rs 48 lakh. With 20 days, one day in twenty is worse than the VaR, so the VaR is the second-worst day and the tail beyond it is the single minus 48. The committee should see expected shortfall beside VaR, with the minus 48 named, because Rs 12 lakh says nothing about how bad the bad day was.

Step 1What does each measure compute?

Sort the days from worst to best: -48, -12, -8, -6, -5 and so on up to +9. A 95% VaR is a loss exceeded on only 5% of days; with 20 days that is one day, so the historical VaR is the second-worst loss, Rs 12 lakh, and the expected shortfallThe average loss on the days worse than the VaR. It answers how bad the bad days are, which VaR does not. is the average of the days beyond it, here the single Rs 48 lakh loss. Conventions differ on whether to interpolate or take the worst day itself, so state the one you use. The normal VaR instead fits a bell curve: the mean is -1.95 and the standard deviation 12.19, so VaR is 1.645 x 12.19 minus the mean, about Rs 22.0 lakh, and the normal expected shortfall is about Rs 27.1 lakh.

Twenty days sorted: where the tail starts and how deep it goes+10-10-20-30-40-500-48-12normal VaR 22.0worst 5% of days:expected shortfall 48historical VaR 12: one day intwenty is worse than thisDays sorted from worst to best, P and L in Rs lakh
Sorting Ushmaka's 20 days puts the 95% historical VaR at the second-worst loss of Rs 12 lakh and the expected shortfall at the one day beyond it, Rs 48 lakh, while the normal VaR of Rs 22.0 lakh lands between the two.
Step 2Why do the three numbers disagree so much?

Picture a flood barrier. VaR tells you the height of the water on the worst day out of twenty you choose to ignore; it says nothing about the one you ignored. Expected shortfall tells you how deep that ignored day was. One outlier moves the measures very differently: historical VaR does not see it at all, the normal VaR sees it only through an inflated standard deviation, and expected shortfall is made of it. Change the -48 to -20 and historical VaR stays at 12, normal VaR drops to 12.4 and expected shortfall drops to 20. The normal VaR is the oddest of the three: the outlier pushes it to 22, a level in the empty gap between the desk's -12 and -48 days, while a bell curve with that mean and spread says a -48 day should come about once in 50 years.

Change only the worst day: which measures notice?Historical VaR12.012.0Normal VaR12.422.0Expected shortfall20.048.0worst day minus 20worst day minus 48, as recorded
Replacing the worst day of minus 48 with minus 20 leaves historical VaR at Rs 12 lakh, moves normal VaR from Rs 12.4 lakh to Rs 22.0 lakh, and moves expected shortfall from Rs 20 lakh to Rs 48 lakh.
Measure, 95%, one dayAs recordedIf worst day were -20Sees the size of the worst day?
Historical VaR12.012.0No
Normal VaR22.012.4Partly, through the standard deviation
Expected shortfall (historical)48.020.0Yes
Rs lakh. Only expected shortfall reports the depth of the tail directly; historical VaR is blind to it and normal VaR mixes it into a symmetric bell curve that fits neither the quiet days nor the bad one.
Step 3What should the risk committee see?

Recommend a short set, not one number. Report the historical VaR of Rs 12 lakh and the expected shortfall of Rs 48 lakh together, name the profit warning day explicitly, and stop using the normal VaR for this desk, because its returns are visibly not bell-shaped. Then flag the sample: 20 days give one observation in the tail, so the expected shortfall is a single data point, not an estimate. A committee should see the same measures on a year or more of history, plus a stress scenario for the desk's largest single-name holdings, since the -48 came from concentration, not from the market.

Close with why the desk head's choice is tempting and wrong. Rs 12 lakh is a true number on the chosen convention. It is also the one measure that is unchanged by the only event the committee needs to hear about. Reporting it alone meets the letter of a VaR limit while hiding the risk that actually hurt.

Where candidates lose it

The usual loss is computing VaR as the worst day, 48, or as the 5th percentile with an off-by-one error, then not noticing that the convention matters at this sample size. Say the convention, then compute.

The second is presenting the normal VaR as a compromise between 12 and 48. It is not a compromise; it is a different model, and here a wrong one, because one fat-tailed day inflates the standard deviation while leaving the bell shape unable to produce that day.

What the interviewer asks next

  • How many days of history would you want before trusting a 99% expected shortfall?
  • How would a 10-day VaR be scaled from these figures, and what does that assume?
  • The desk adds a hedge that caps single-name losses at Rs 15 lakh. Which measure shows the benefit?

Asked at BlackRock, Restructuring, New York, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis): Techincal and behavioral (VAR, market views, stock valuation) why blackrock, python experience?

← Case 032A strategy has a Sharpe ratio of 1.0 at 12% volatility and a worst drawdown of 8% in two years live. What drawdown should investors expect over ten years, and is a 20% fall in year three evidence it is broken?Case 034 →A strategy has expected excess return of 8% and volatility of 16% a year. What is the full-Kelly leverage, what growth do full and half Kelly give, and what gross exposure would you run on Rs 200 crore?

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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