Quant interview preparation
Prop market making and quantitative research, weighted the way the interviews actually are: probability and expected value, statistics and machine learning, market making logic, programming and options. Every question is either traced to a named firm from a public candidate report, or tagged at desk level when we could not trace it, and every probability answer shows the reasoning path rather than just the number.
100 questions, mapped to the firms that asked them
- Questions
- 100
- Traced to a firm
- 53
- Firms
- 15
- Updated
- September 2026
001There are two bags of stones and you do not know how many black or white are in each. You draw two stones and both are black. What is the probability the next one is black, and will you bet on it?CitadelQuantitative Trading · New York · 2025
Say this
Higher than a half, and yes I would bet on black. Because I do not know the composition, the two black draws are evidence about the composition itself, so I update towards bags that are black-heavy. The draws are not independent trials, they are a sample that teaches me about the urn.
Then walk it
- Set it up properly: put a prior over the unknown mixture, say the proportion of black p is uniform on zero to one, and the draws are conditionally independent given p.
- Then this is Laplace's rule of succession. With k blacks out of n draws the posterior predictive probability of another black is (k+1)/(n+2). Two blacks out of two gives 3/4.
- The intuition without algebra: seeing black twice shifts the posterior mass towards high p, and the predictive probability is the posterior mean of p, which is now above a half.
- Compare it with the alternative model. If I were told the bag was exactly 50/50 and I was drawing with replacement, the answer would be exactly a half and the history would be irrelevant. The whole question is which model you are in.
- On the betting half: I would take anything better than even money on black, and I would size it small because 3/4 is a function of my prior, not of data. Two draws is almost no information. If the prior were concentrated near a half the answer moves back towards a half.
Where candidates lose it
Saying one half because the draws are independent. They are only independent conditional on the unknown composition, and the composition is exactly what you are learning. The second failure is giving 3/4 with no mention of the prior, as if it were a fact rather than the output of a uniform prior you chose.
Expect next
- What if the prior were Beta(2,2) instead of uniform?
- Now make me a market on the probability and I will trade it.
- Same question but sampling without replacement from a bag of 10 stones. Does the answer move?
Reported by candidates at Citadel (Quantitative Trading, New York, 2025). Source: Wall Street Oasis.
004Given a biased coin with probability p, how would you generate n independent fair coin tosses, and what is the lower bound on the number of biased tosses you need?Tower Research CapitalTrading · Princeton · 2018D.E. ShawResearch · New York · 2026
Say this
The bound is information-theoretic. Each biased flip carries H(p) bits of entropy, where H(p) is minus p log2 p minus (1-p) log2 (1-p), and each fair flip you output consumes exactly one bit. So you need at least n divided by H(p) biased flips on average, and no scheme can beat that.
Then walk it
- The argument is conservation of randomness. You cannot manufacture entropy, only repackage it, so expected input entropy must be at least expected output entropy.
- At p equal to a half, H is 1 and the bound is n flips, which is obviously right. At p equal to 0.1, H is about 0.47, so you need roughly 2.1 flips per fair bit at best.
- Von Neumann pairing achieves 1/(2p(1-p)) flips per bit, which at p equal to 0.1 is about 5.6. Miles off the 2.1 floor.
- To get close, you recycle the discarded information. Elias's and Peres's extractors take the sequence of discarded HH/TT outcomes and the positions of the successes, both of which still carry entropy, and feed them back in recursively. Peres's construction converges to the entropy bound as the block length grows.
- What I would actually say on a desk: for n fair bits I would use pairing because it is three lines of code and provably correct, and I would only reach for a Peres extractor if the biased source were expensive, which in practice it never is.
Where candidates lose it
Answering only with the construction and not the bound, or quoting the bound as n/H(p) without being able to say why entropy is the right currency. Also do not claim von Neumann is optimal. It is unbiased and simple, and it is provably wasteful, and saying so is the difference between having read the trick and understanding it.
Expect next
- Where exactly does the discarded entropy live in the von Neumann scheme?
- Now the reverse problem: simulate a p-coin from fair coins.
- What if p is unknown but you need to hit the entropy bound?
Reported by candidates at Tower Research Capital (Trading, Princeton, 2018); D.E. Shaw (Research, New York, 2026). Source: Wall Street Oasis.
005I shuffle a deck and turn cards face up one at a time. At any point you may say stop, and you win if the next card is red. What is your optimal strategy and what is your probability of winning?Jump TradingResearch · Chicago · 2018
Say this
Every strategy wins with probability exactly one half, so there is no optimal strategy. Stopping before the first card is as good as any clever rule based on the count.
Then walk it
- The quick proof is a symmetry argument. Fix any stopping rule and imagine swapping the colour of every card in the deck. The rule's decisions are determined by cards already seen, and the swap turns every win into a loss and every loss into a win, so wins and losses are equally likely.
- The cleaner proof is a martingale. Let X be the fraction of red cards remaining. Before you see a card, the expected fraction of reds remaining after you see it is exactly the current fraction, because the card you turn is a uniform draw from what is left. So X is a martingale.
- Your win probability when you stop is X at the stopping time. Optional stopping says the expected value of a bounded martingale at any stopping time equals its starting value, which is 26/52, or a half.
- This is the whole lesson of the problem. Your information at the moment you stop is already priced into the state. There is no edge in a fair game no matter how you time it.
- One caveat that makes it a real problem rather than a trick: if you are forced to keep going to the last card, you still win a half, because the last card is red with probability a half. But the variance of the outcomes differs across strategies even though the mean does not, and if you had a utility function that is not linear you would care.
Where candidates lose it
Inventing a rule like wait until more blacks than reds have come out, and claiming it beats a half. That intuition feels right and it is wrong, because the situations in which the rule fires are exactly the situations where the deck was red-heavy from the start. Name the martingale and use optional stopping, or at minimum give the colour-swap symmetry argument.
Expect next
- Prove it with optional stopping, precisely.
- Does the answer change if you can also bet on black?
- Which strategy has the lowest variance of outcome?
Reported by candidates at Jump Trading (Research, Chicago, 2018). Source: Wall Street Oasis.
010Same die game, but now you earn one dollar per dot and each re-roll costs you one dollar, with unlimited re-rolls. What is the value of the game and when do you stop?Old Mission CapitalFinance · New York · 2018
Say this
The game is worth 4 dollars if the first roll is free, and you stop on a 3 or better. The continuation value of choosing to roll again is exactly 3, so the acceptance threshold is 3, and the value of a free first roll is the average of 3, 3, 3, 4, 5 and 6, which is 4.
Then walk it
- Set up the recursion. If you decide to roll, you pay 1, then with the threshold t you accept faces above or equal to t and otherwise roll again. So V equals minus 1 plus the average over faces of the max of the face value and V.
- Guess the threshold is 4, meaning V sits in the interval 3 to 4. Then faces 4, 5, 6 are accepted for 15 total, and faces 1, 2, 3 all continue at V each.
- V equals minus 1 plus (15 plus 3V)/6. Multiply through: 6V equals minus 6 plus 15 plus 3V, so 3V equals 9, V equals 3.
- Check consistency: V equal to 3 means you should accept anything at or above 3, not 4. Re-solve with threshold 3: accepted faces 3,4,5,6 sum to 18, continuing faces 1,2 give 2V. V equals minus 1 plus (18 plus 2V)/6 gives 6V equals 12 plus 2V, so V equals 3. Consistent, since 3 is in the interval 2 to 3 boundary case. So the value of choosing to roll is 3 and you stop on 3 or better.
- Check consistency, which is the step that matters: V equal to 3 means you accept anything at or above 3, so re-solve with threshold 3. Accepted faces 3, 4, 5, 6 sum to 18 and continuing faces 1 and 2 give 2V, so V equals minus 1 plus (18 plus 2V)/6, which gives 4V equals 12 and V equals 3. Now the assumed threshold and the solved value agree, so 3 is the answer. With a free first roll the game is worth the average of max(face, 3), which is 24 over 6, equals 4.
Where candidates lose it
Solving the fixed point once and not checking that the threshold you assumed is consistent with the value you found. That verification step is the whole exercise in an optimal-stopping problem, and skipping it is how candidates report a threshold of 4 with a value of 3 and never notice the contradiction.
Expect next
- What if the re-roll cost were 2 dollars instead?
- At what cost per re-roll does the game become worthless?
- How does this map to pricing an American option?
Reported by candidates at Old Mission Capital (Finance, New York, 2018). Source: Wall Street Oasis.
012Four points are chosen at random on the surface of a sphere. What is the probability that the tetrahedron they form contains the centre?Old Mission CapitalProp Trading · Chicago · 2018
Say this
One eighth. The clean argument: take three random points and their three antipodes, giving eight candidate tetrahedra from the eight sign choices, and exactly one of the eight contains the centre.
Then walk it
- Build the construction. Draw three random points P1, P2, P3 and three random diameters through them. The fourth point is then the head or tail of an independent diameter, and by symmetry each of the eight sign combinations of the three diameters is equally likely as the configuration.
- For almost every set of three diameters, exactly one of the eight tetrahedra formed by choosing one endpoint from each diameter, plus the fourth point, contains the centre. So the probability is 1/8.
- Warm up with the two-dimensional version first if you are stuck. Three points on a circle contain the centre with probability 1/4, by the same argument with two diameters and four sign choices.
- The pattern generalises: n plus 1 points on the surface of an n-sphere contain the centre with probability 1 over 2 to the n. Two to the power n sign choices, one winner.
- Say the 2D case out loud before the 3D case. It is the same proof at half the cognitive load, and it shows the interviewer your method rather than a memorised number. The number alone is worthless here because the answer is famous.
Where candidates lose it
Attempting to integrate over solid angles. It is a five-line symmetry argument and any attempt at brute-force geometry will run out of time. The other trap is stating one eighth flatly, which reads as recall. Construct the antipodal argument, because with a famous answer the reasoning is all they can grade.
Expect next
- Do the circle case in two dimensions.
- What is the expected volume of that tetrahedron?
- Three random points on a circle: what is the probability the triangle is acute?
Reported by candidates at Old Mission Capital (Prop Trading, Chicago, 2018). Source: Wall Street Oasis.
017Five pirates must split a hundred gold coins. The most senior proposes a split, everyone votes, and if at least half agree it passes, otherwise he is thrown overboard and the next most senior proposes. How should the senior pirate split the coins to survive and maximise his take?Old Mission CapitalProp Trading · New York · 2014
Say this
98 for himself, 0 to the second, 1 to the third, 0 to the fourth, 1 to the fifth. Solve it by backward induction from two pirates, because each pirate's vote depends only on what they would get if the current proposer dies.
Then walk it
- Two pirates left: the senior of the two takes 100, votes for himself, and half of two is one vote, so it passes. Pirate 4 gets 100 and pirate 5 gets 0.
- Three left: pirate 3 needs one more vote. Pirate 5 gets nothing in the two-pirate world, so 1 coin buys him. Split is 99, 0, 1.
- Four left: pirate 2 needs one more vote out of four. He buys pirate 4, who gets 0 in the three-pirate world, for 1 coin. Split is 99, 0, 1, 0.
- Five left: pirate 1 needs two more votes. The pirates who get 0 under pirate 2's plan are 3 and 5, so he buys both for 1 coin each. That gives 98, 0, 1, 0, 1.
- The whole method is: work out what each pirate gets if the proposal fails, then pay each cheap vote exactly one coin more than that. The assumptions matter and you should state them: pirates are perfectly rational, prefer gold, prefer to live, and prefer fewer rivals if otherwise indifferent.
Where candidates lose it
Trying to reason forwards from five pirates, which is impossible. State that you are doing backward induction and start from the base case of two. The second trap is the tie rule. Half of an even number counts as passing here, and if you assume a strict majority the whole answer shifts, so say your reading of the rule out loud before you solve.
Expect next
- What happens with two hundred pirates and a hundred coins?
- How does the answer change if a tie means the proposer dies?
- What if pirates value killing above one extra coin?
Reported by candidates at Old Mission Capital (Prop Trading, New York, 2014). Source: Wall Street Oasis.
018You have n cars, each with fuel for a thousand miles, and you can transfer petrol between them mid-journey. What is the maximum distance one car can travel, and what happens as n goes to infinity?Millennium ManagementInvestments · London · 2024
Say this
A thousand times the harmonic sum: 1000 times (1 plus 1/2 plus 1/3 up to 1/n). It diverges, so as n goes to infinity the distance is unbounded, but only logarithmically, which is the interesting part.
Then walk it
- Think in stages, working from the start. With all n cars moving together, you burn n tanks per 1000 miles of travel, so you can go 1000/n miles before you can consolidate one car's worth of fuel out of the collective and abandon it.
- After that leg, n minus 1 cars carry on, each full, and you get 1000/(n-1) more miles before dropping the next. Continue until one car is left, which contributes 1000/1.
- Sum the legs: 1000 times the sum of 1/k for k from 1 to n. That is 1000 times H_n.
- H_n grows like the natural log of n plus gamma, about 0.577. So with 10 cars you get roughly 2,929 miles, with 100 cars about 5,187, and with a million cars only about 14,392.
- That is the point worth making: the distance is unbounded but painfully inefficient. To double your range from 100 cars you need about 100 squared cars. This is the same log scaling as the coupon collector problem, and it is a good example of a divergent series that is useless in practice.
Where candidates lose it
Getting the legs backwards, i.e. putting the long leg first. The many-car legs are short because you are burning fuel n times as fast. Also do not answer infinite and stop. The number they want is 1000 H_n with the log growth spelled out, because the divergence-but-barely is the whole insight.
Expect next
- How many cars to reach ten thousand miles?
- What if the cars must all return to the start?
- Where else does the harmonic series show up in probability?
Reported by candidates at Millennium Management (Investments, London, 2024). Source: Wall Street Oasis.
028An ant walks randomly along the edges of a cube starting at one corner. What is the expected number of steps to reach the opposite corner?Quant tradingQuant research
Say this
Ten steps. Collapse the eight vertices into four states by distance from the start, then solve three linear equations. The symmetry reduction is the whole trick.
Then walk it
- By symmetry, all that matters is your graph distance from the target: state 3 is the start, then 2, then 1, then 0 which is the target. Each vertex has three neighbours.
- From state 3 all three neighbours are at distance 2, so E3 equals 1 plus E2.
- From state 2, one neighbour is at distance 3 and two are at distance 1. So E2 equals 1 plus (1/3)E3 plus (2/3)E1.
- From state 1, one neighbour is the target and two are at distance 2. So E1 equals 1 plus (2/3)E2.
- Solve: substitute E3 equals 1 plus E2 into the second equation to get E2 equals 1 plus (1 plus E2)/3 plus (2/3)(1 plus (2/3)E2). That yields E2 equal to 9, so E1 equals 7 and E3 equals 10. Sanity check with the general theorem: for a random walk on a regular graph the expected return time to a vertex is the number of vertices, 8, which is the right order of magnitude for a 10-step commute across the diagonal.
Where candidates lose it
Trying to track all eight vertices individually and drowning in eight equations. Say the word symmetry, lump the states by distance, and you have three unknowns. The other error is miscounting neighbours in state 2, where it is one back and two forward, not two back and one forward.
Expect next
- What is the expected time to return to the starting corner?
- Do it for a tetrahedron.
- What if the walk is on a hypercube in n dimensions?
Firm tags come from public, anonymous candidate reports on Wall Street Oasis: strong signal, not sworn testimony. Firms are named as the places a question was reported, not as partners of Fin Maverick. Answers are written for this page to show how to think out loud; they are not scripts to recite.

