Case 003Counterparty risk and CVAWarm up
An exporter wants a one-year forward to sell USD 25 million, and its credit line with the bank is Rs 10 crore. The forward is worth nothing today. Does it fit the line, and if not, how would you make it fit?
1The situation
Beldora Agro Exports sells spices abroad and is paid in dollars. It asks your bank for a one-year forward contract to sell USD 25 million at Rs 84, locking in the rupee value of next year's receipts. At inception the forward is priced at market, so its value to either side is zero.
The bank measures forward exposure as the current mark to market plus a potential future exposure add-on. Its illustrative grid charges 6% of notional for one-year currency forwards and 4% for six months. Beldora's approved credit line for derivatives is Rs 10 crore.
2Your task
How much of the line does the forward use, and what structures would let the bank do the trade?
Quick check
How much of Beldora's Rs 10 crore line does the forward use on day one?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
The forward uses Rs 12.6 crore, 126% of Beldora's Rs 10 crore line, although it is worth zero today. The add-on reserves for the rupee weakening and Beldora owing the bank. The trade fits if Beldora hedges USD 19.8 million now, splits it into six month forwards using Rs 8.4 crore, or posts about Rs 2.6 crore of cash margin against the excess.
Step 1How can a contract worth zero use up credit?
Agree today to buy a friend's scooter in a year for Rs 50,000, its fair price now. Nothing has changed hands and the deal is worth nothing to either of you. If scooter prices jump, your friend is tempted to walk away, and your promise is suddenly worth something that you might not collect. A forward's credit risk is what it could be worth to the bank if the counterparty defaults later, not what it is worth today. Banks call that potential future exposureA high estimate of what a derivative could be worth to the bank at some point before maturity, if the market moves against the client..
Now the direction. Beldora has agreed to sell dollars at Rs 84. If the rupee weakens to Rs 89, Beldora must hand over dollars worth Rs 89 for Rs 84, and the contract is worth Rs 5 a dollar to the bank, Rs 12.5 crore on USD 25 million. The 6% add-on is the bank's estimate of how far the rupee could move against Beldora in a year: 6% of Rs 84 is about Rs 5.04.
Step 2What are the ways to make the trade fit?
Work backwards from the line. At 6% of notional, a Rs 10 crore line supports Rs 166.7 crore of forwards, which is USD 19.84 million at Rs 84. That gives four structures. Hedge about USD 19.8 million now and the rest later as the line frees up. Shorten the tenor: six month forwards at 4% use Rs 8.4 crore, and Beldora rolls them, accepting a cash settlement at each roll. Take a cash margin or a lien on a fixed deposit of about Rs 2.6 crore against the excess. Or ask credit for a higher line, which needs a fresh look at Beldora's finances.
| Structure | Line used, Rs crore | Cost to Beldora |
|---|---|---|
| USD 25 m, one year, as asked | 12.6 | Does not fit |
| USD 19.8 m now, rest later | 10.0 | Part of next year stays unhedged for now |
| USD 25 m in six month forwards | 8.4 | Roll cost and a cash settlement at each roll |
| USD 25 m plus Rs 2.6 crore cash margin | 10.0 net | Cash locked up for the year |
Step 3Which would you recommend, and what stays on your watch list?
The shorter tenor or the partial hedge, because each keeps the bank inside an approved line without extra paperwork. Remember that usage moves after the trade: if the rupee weakens early, the mark to market grows and eats into the line even though nothing new was booked. One mitigating fact is worth saying: when the forward loses for Beldora, its dollar receivables gain in rupees, so a genuine exporter can usually pay. The case that hurts is the exporter whose shipments fail and who is left holding the losing forward alone.
Where candidates lose it
The fast wrong answer is that a zero-value trade uses no line. Candidates who say it show they are pricing the trade, not the risk of the counterparty failing to honour it later.
The second miss is using the full Rs 210 crore notional as exposure. Nobody loses the whole notional on a forward; the loss is the move in the rupee, which is why the add-on is a percentage.
What the interviewer asks next
- Six months in, the rupee is at Rs 88. What is the bank's exposure now?
- Why would a bank charge a higher add-on for a currency option sold to the client than for a forward?
- How would a daily collateral agreement change the add-on?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
