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053

Case 053Counterparty risk and CVACore

You value your derivatives with a client at Rs 37 crore owed to you; the client says Rs 25 crore. The collateral agreement has a Rs 10 crore threshold and no collateral is held. What do you call, what is disputed, and what happens if the client fails to post?

1The situation

The bank has a portfolio of interest rate swaps and currency options with Ferrovane Trading, a commodities trading house. Today's valuation run says Ferrovane owes the bank Rs 37 crore on a net basis. Ferrovane's treasury has sent back its own valuation: Rs 25 crore.

The collateral agreement between them has a threshold of Rs 10 crore, meaning exposure up to that amount is left unsecured, and a minimum transfer amount of Rs 1 crore. At present no collateral is held on either side.

2Your task

Compute the call on each valuation and the disputed amount, set out how the dispute gets resolved, and say what the bank does if Ferrovane does not post.

Quick check

Ferrovane disputes the call. How much should it still post today?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

The bank calls Rs 27 crore; Ferrovane's own valuation implies Rs 15 crore, so Rs 12 crore is disputed. Ferrovane should post the undisputed Rs 15 crore today. Until the Rs 12 crore is settled, the bank carries Rs 22 crore unsecured: the Rs 10 crore threshold plus the disputed slice. If Ferrovane fails to post even the undisputed amount, that becomes a default under the agreement once notice and grace periods pass.

Step 1How is each call worked out?

A threshold is like the excess on car insurance: the first slice is yours to carry, and only exposure above it is covered. The call is exposure minus threshold, made only if it clears the minimum transfer amount. On the bank's valuation that is 37 minus 10, Rs 27 crore. On Ferrovane's it is 25 minus 10, Rs 15 crore. Both are far above the Rs 1 crore minimum transfer amountThe smallest collateral movement the agreement requires, so tiny calls are not made every day., so both are valid calls, and the difference between them, Rs 12 crore, is the dispute.

One portfolio, two valuations: the disputed slice is unsecuredBank's valuationRs 37 crore owed to bankthreshold 10agreed call 15disputed 1237Ferrovane's valuationRs 25 crore owed to bankthreshold 10agreed call 15250102537Rs crore of exposure to FerrovaneWhile the dispute runs: collateral 15, exposure 37, unsecured 22 (threshold 10 + disputed 12)
On the bank's Rs 37 crore valuation the call is Rs 27 crore and on Ferrovane's Rs 25 crore it is Rs 15 crore; while the Rs 12 crore gap is argued the bank holds Rs 15 crore of collateral against Rs 37 crore of exposure, leaving Rs 22 crore unsecured.
Rs croreBank's viewFerrovane's view
Net exposure owed to the bank3725
Less threshold(10)(10)
Call2715
Moves today15
Disputed12
The calls are Rs 27 crore and Rs 15 crore; the undisputed Rs 15 crore should move today and Rs 12 crore goes into the dispute process.
Step 2How do you actually resolve a Rs 12 crore gap?

Work from the cheapest explanation to the most expensive. First reconcile the trade population: most large disputes are a trade one side has booked and the other has not, or a trade already matured on one side. Then compare trade by trade and sort the differences by size. Then check the inputs behind the largest ones: curves, volatilities, the valuation cut-off time. A dispute is usually a data problem before it is a valuation problem. Suppose reconciliation finds a Rs 5 crore swap that Ferrovane never booked but did confirm, and a Rs 7 crore gap on the options from different volatility inputs, split down the middle after both sides take market quotes. The agreed exposure becomes Rs 33.5 crore, and Ferrovane owes a further Rs 8.5 crore on top of the Rs 15 crore already posted.

Step 3What if Ferrovane does not post at all?

Then the dispute is no longer the issue. Failing to post an undisputed amount is a failure to transfer, which becomes an event of default once the bank has given notice and the grace period in the agreement has run. At that point the bank can terminate the whole portfolio and claim the close-out amount, and with nothing held it is exposed to the full Rs 37 crore. Risk does not wait for that date: the credit officer is told on day one, new trades with Ferrovane are stopped, and the credit limit and internal rating are reviewed, because a trading house that cannot find Rs 15 crore is sending a liquidity signal. Say the limit too: all of this depends on the wording of this particular agreement, which risk should read rather than assume.

Where candidates lose it

Candidates often say nothing moves until the dispute is settled. That hands the counterparty a free option to dispute every call. Only the disputed slice waits; the undisputed amount moves the same day.

The second miss is forgetting the threshold in the exposure. Even once the dispute is resolved and the call paid, Rs 10 crore stays unsecured by design, and that is what the credit limit has to cover.

What the interviewer asks next

  • Disputes with Ferrovane recur every month. What does that tell you, and what do you change?
  • How would you set the threshold for a counterparty rated two notches lower?
  • Why does a dispute increase CVA even if it is eventually settled in the bank's favour?
← Case 052A freight company's ratios support a solid rating, but its top client is 45% of revenue, promoters have pledged 30% of their shares, one of six directors is independent and it has changed auditors three times in five years. How do you assess it qualitatively, and how far should that cap the rating?Case 054 →An infrastructure company has Rs 1,000 crore of floating rate loans and EBITDA of Rs 180 crore. A swap would fix its benchmark at 7.2% when the benchmark is 7%. Compare interest cost and cover, hedged and unhedged, if rates fall to 5% or rise to 9%.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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