Case 063Structured finance and securitisationWarm up
A securitised personal loan pool yields 14% a year. Investors are paid 8.5%, servicing costs 1% and expected losses are 3%. What is the excess spread, how does it protect investors, and what happens if losses rise to 5%?
1The situation
Tavrisa Capital, a consumer lender, has sold a Rs 500 crore pool of unsecured personal loans into a securitisation trust. The loans pay an average of 14% a year. The trust pays investors 8.5% on their notes and pays Tavrisa 1% a year to service the loans. Expected losses from defaults are 3% of the pool a year.
Whatever is left each year after these three uses is called excess spread. The deal also has a cash reserve of 5% of the pool, Rs 25 crore, set aside at the start.
2Your task
Compute the excess spread, explain how it protects investors, and show what happens if losses rise to 5%.
Quick check
If losses rise from 3% to 5%, what happens to the excess spread?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
Excess spread is 1.5% a year, about Rs 7.5 crore on a Rs 500 crore pool. It is the 14% yield less 8.5% to investors, 1% servicing and 3% expected losses, and it absorbs any loss above expectations before investors feel it. If losses reach 5%, it turns to minus 0.5%: the first line of defence is gone and the Rs 25 crore reserve starts paying about Rs 2.5 crore a year.
Step 1What is excess spread, in plain terms?
A household earns Rs 14,000 a month, pays Rs 8,500 of rent, Rs 1,000 of fixed bills and usually spends Rs 3,000 on things that go wrong. The Rs 1,500 left over is its buffer: if repairs cost more one month, that is what pays. Excess spread is the pool's leftover income after paying investors, the servicer and the expected losses, and it is the first money used to absorb losses above expectations. For Tavrisa's pool that is 14 - 8.5 - 1 - 3, which is 1.5%, or Rs 7.5 crore a year.
Step 2How exactly does it protect investors?
Losses are met first from the current year's income, then from the reserve, then from any subordinated notes, and only then from senior investors. Because excess spread sits at the top of that order, losses can rise from 3% to 4.5% of the pool a year before the reserve is touched. Rating agencies credit it, but carefully, because it is income that may not arrive rather than cash already in the deal. That is also why most deals trap excess spread in the reserve when performance slips, instead of releasing it to the originator.
| % of pool a year | Base case | Losses at 5% |
|---|---|---|
| Pool yield | 14.0 | 14.0 |
| Investor coupon | (8.5) | (8.5) |
| Servicing | (1.0) | (1.0) |
| Losses | (3.0) | (5.0) |
| Excess spread | 1.5 | -0.5 |
| Rs crore a year on Rs 500 crore | 7.5 | -2.5 |
Step 3What happens when losses rise to 5%, and why is that worse than it looks?
At 5% losses excess spread is -0.5%, a Rs 2.5 crore annual shortfall. The Rs 25 crore reserve would last about 10 years at that pace, so investors are still paid. The deeper problem is that excess spread shrinks from two sides at once: the loans that default are often the highest-rate ones, and borrowers with good credit prepay and refinance elsewhere, so the pool's 14% yield drifts down just as losses rise. A 5% loss year with the yield down to 13% leaves a 1.5% hole, three times the shortfall above. That is why excess spread is called the first line of defence and the first to disappear.
Close with what you would check in the deal documents: whether excess spread is trapped when losses cross a trigger, how the reserve is replenished, and whether the servicing fee is senior to investors. Each changes how long investors stay protected, and each is a line a rating analyst reads before trusting the 1.5%.
Where candidates lose it
Candidates often compute 1.5% and call it the investors' cushion without saying it is income, not cash in hand. Excess spread only protects if it keeps arriving, and it falls exactly when losses rise.
The second is saying investors lose money at 5% losses. They do not yet: the reserve pays first. The honest answer says what is used up and how long it lasts.
What the interviewer asks next
- What loss rate would exhaust the reserve within the deal's three-year life?
- How does a trigger that traps excess spread change the answer?
- Why would a rating agency give less credit to excess spread than to a cash reserve of the same size?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
