Case 075Structured finance and securitisationCore
A manufacturer sells Rs 400 crore of trade receivables into a securitisation. Dilution from credit notes and returns averages 4% with a stressed peak of 9%, and defaults run at 2% with a stressed 6%. Size the reserve needed to protect senior investors at the stressed levels.
1The situation
Ornavik Industries makes electrical equipment and sells on 60-day credit terms to distributors. To free up cash it sells Rs 400 crore of its trade receivables into a securitisation, funded by senior investors. Ornavik keeps servicing the receivables and collecting from its customers.
Two things reduce what the pool actually collects. Dilution: credit notes for returns, volume rebates and pricing disputes, which reduce an invoice without any customer defaulting; it averages 4% of the pool and peaked at 9% in the worst month of the last three years. And defaults: customers who never pay, averaging 2% with a stressed level of 6%.
2Your task
Size the reserve needed to protect senior investors at the stressed levels, and explain why dilution needs its own reserve.
Quick check
Why can a default reserve not simply cover dilution too?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
The reserve should be about Rs 60 crore, 15% of the pool: 9% for stressed dilution and 6% for stressed defaults. In the base case the two need only Rs 24 crore. Dilution is a separate loss because credit notes and returns cut invoices without any default, so a reserve sized on defaults alone, Rs 24 crore, would leave senior investors exposed to Rs 36 crore of stressed dilution.
Step 1What is dilution, and why is it a separate loss?
A shop sells a fridge on credit, then the customer returns it, or gets a discount for a dent. The shop is owed less, but nobody has defaulted. Dilution is any reduction in a receivable that is not caused by the customer failing to pay: credit notes, returns, rebates and disputes. In a receivables deal the investors bought the invoice amounts, so every credit note is money they will not collect. It needs its own reserve because default statistics never see it, and because it tends to rise in the same months that defaults do, as distributors facing weak demand return stock and argue over prices.
Step 2How do you size the reserve?
Size each layer on its stressed level and add them, because in a bad period both arrive together. Dilution at 9% of Rs 400 crore needs Rs 36 crore and defaults at 6% need Rs 24 crore, so the reserve is Rs 60 crore, 15% of the pool. In practice this reserve is usually built as overcollateralisation: senior investors fund only Rs 340 crore against Rs 400 crore of receivables, and Ornavik receives the remaining Rs 60 crore later, as a deferred purchase price, if the pool collects in full. Rating agencies go further and apply stress multiples to historical peaks that rise with the rating sought; their published methods should be checked for the actual factors.
| Rs crore on Rs 400 crore | Base rate | Base reserve | Stressed rate | Stressed reserve |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dilution | 4% | 16 | 9% | 36 |
| Defaults | 2% | 8 | 6% | 24 |
| Total | 6% | 24 | 15% | 60 |
Step 3Who normally pays for dilution, and why does the reserve still matter?
In most receivables deals the seller is contractually required to pay the trust for any dilution, called a deemed collection, since the credit note was its own decision. That promise is only as good as Ornavik itself, and the moment it is most needed, when Ornavik is in trouble and issuing credit notes to keep distributors, is the moment it is least able to pay. The dilution reserve covers exactly that case. A rating analyst would also look at commingling, the risk that collections sit in Ornavik's own accounts when it fails, at concentration in the largest distributors, and at whether credit note policy could change after the sale. Each can add to the reserve or call for a trigger that moves collections away from Ornavik early.
Where candidates lose it
The common loss is sizing the reserve on defaults alone, Rs 24 crore, because that is how loan securitisations are usually taught. Trade receivables lose money through credit notes as well as defaults, and missing dilution leaves a hole bigger than the default reserve itself.
The second is using average rates instead of stressed peaks. A reserve built on 4% and 2% covers the good months and fails in exactly the months it exists for.
What the interviewer asks next
- Ornavik's largest distributor is 15% of the pool. How does that change the reserve?
- Why would investors want a trigger that stops new receivables being added when dilution rises?
- How does a deemed collection obligation change if Ornavik is rated two notches lower?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
