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Venture Capital puzzles, solved step by step

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  1. 011In your head, no calculator: a SaaS company has ARR of Rs 42 crore growing 65% a year, net burn of Rs 3.1 crore a month, net new ARR last quarter of Rs 6.2 crore and Rs 55 crore of cash. What are next year's ARR, the quarterly burn multiple and the runway?Mental maths and speed testsCoreVista Equity PartnersAustin · 2021

    Try it first

    What is the quarterly burn multiple?

    Show the worked solution

    About Rs 69.3 crore of ARR, a burn multiple of 1.5 and about 18 months of runway. 42 x 1.65 is 42 plus 21 plus 6.3. A quarter's burn is 9.3, and 9.3 over 6.2 is 1.5 because both are multiples of 3.1. Cash of 55 over 3.1 a month is a shade under 55 over 3, so about 17.7 months.

    How do you multiply by 1.65 without a calculator?

    Break the awkward multiplier into pieces you already know. A shopkeeper adding 65% to a Rs 42 cost does not multiply by 0.65; he adds half, then a bit more. 65% is 50% plus 15%, so 42 x 1.65 is 42 plus 21 plus 6.3, which is Rs 69.3 crore. Fifteen percent is itself 10% plus half of that again: 4.2 plus 2.1. Every step is a halving or a shift of the decimal point, which is fast and hard to get wrong out loud.

    Why does the burn multiple need care before any arithmetic?

    Because the two inputs come in different periods. Burn is quoted per month and net new ARR per quarter. A burn multiple divides the cash burned by the new annual recurring revenue added over the same stretch of time, so three months of burn, Rs 9.3 crore, goes over the quarter's Rs 6.2 crore. Then notice that 9.3 is 3 x 3.1 and 6.2 is 2 x 3.1, so the ratio is exactly 3 over 2, or 1.5. Interviewers choose numbers like these on purpose; spotting the common factor is part of the test.

    Round first, then correct: three answers in under a minuteNext year's ARR42 x 1.65= 42 + 21 + 6.3(the base, half, then 15%)Rs 69.3 crBurn multipleQuarterly burn 3 x 3.1 = 9.39.3 / 6.2 = (3 x 3.1) / (2 x 3.1)(match the periods first)1.5Runway55 / 3 = 18.33.1 is 3% more than 3,so shave 3%: about 17.7~18 monthsThe slip: monthly burn over quarterly net new ARR, 3.1 / 6.2 = 0.5, looks three times better than it is.Both halves of a burn multiple must cover the same period.
    Splitting 1.65 into 1 plus a half plus 15% gives Rs 69.3 crore of ARR, matching periods turns the burn multiple into 9.3 over 6.2, which is 1.5, and rounding 3.1 down to 3 then shaving 3% gives about 17.7 months of runway.
    The relationship
    BM=3×3.16.2=1.5Runway=553.1≈17.7 months\text{BM} = \frac{3 \times 3.1}{6.2} = 1.5 \qquad \text{Runway} = \frac{55}{3.1} \approx 17.7 \text{ months}
    3 x 3.1net burn over one quarter, Rs crore
    6.2net new ARR added in the quarter, Rs crore
    55cash in the bank, Rs crore
    What it says in wordsPut burn and new revenue on the same period before dividing, and divide cash by monthly burn for runway.

    What do you say once the three numbers are out?

    Check them against each other, because that is what a growth investor does next. Growing ARR by Rs 27.3 crore next year needs about Rs 6.8 crore of net new ARR a quarter, a little above the Rs 6.2 crore just achieved, so the 65% plan is plausible but not banked. At a 1.5 burn multiple that growth costs about Rs 41 crore of burn in the year, and with Rs 55 crore of cash and about 18 months of runway, the company will want to raise again within roughly a year, before the runway gets short. That one sentence turns arithmetic into a view on the company.

    Where candidates lose it

    The costly slip is dividing the monthly burn by the quarterly net new ARR and announcing a burn multiple of 0.5. It makes the company look three times more efficient than it is, and the interviewer chose mixed periods to see whether you notice.

    The second loss is going silent while you calculate. Say the shortcut as you use it: half, then fifteen percent; three parts over two parts; fifty five over three, then shave a little.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • If net burn rises 20% next year while ARR grows 65%, what happens to the burn multiple if net new ARR grows in step with ARR?
    • How much cash should the company raise to have 24 months of runway at the current burn?
    • Is a burn multiple of 1.5 good for a company of this size, and what would change your view?

    Asked at Vista Equity Partners, Private Equity, Austin, 2021 (Wall Street Oasis): Mental math and tech/SaaS-specific sector insights

  2. 030Estimate 1.07 to the power 10 and 0.93 to the power 10 in your head, and say why the two answers are not reciprocals.Mental maths and speed testsCoreGrowth equityMulti-stage VC

    Try it first

    Which pair is closest to the two answers?

    Show the worked solution

    About 1.97 and about 0.48. For the first, the rule of 72 says 7% doubles money in about 10.3 years, so ten years gives just under 2. For the second, ln 0.93 is about minus 0.0725, ten years of it is minus 0.725, and e to that is about 0.48. They are not reciprocals because 0.93 is not 1 over 1.07: undoing a 7% rise takes only a 6.5% fall.

    How do you get each number without a calculator?

    Start with the one you know. The rule of 72A shortcut for compounding: money growing at r per cent a year doubles in roughly 72 divided by r years. says money growing at r% doubles in about 72 over r years, so at 7% it doubles in about 10.3 years and ten years leaves you just short of 2. For the fall, work in natural logs, which turn compounding into adding. ln(1 minus x) is about minus x minus half of x squared, so ln 0.93 is about minus 0.07 minus 0.00245, which is minus 0.0725. Ten years gives minus 0.725. e to minus 0.693 is exactly one half, and minus 0.725 is a little further down, so the answer is a shade under a half: about 0.48.

    The relationship
    ln⁡(1±x)≈±x−x2210ln⁡1.07≈0.676⇒1.9710ln⁡0.93≈−0.725⇒0.48\ln(1 \pm x) \approx \pm x - \tfrac{x^2}{2} \qquad 10\ln 1.07 \approx 0.676 \Rightarrow 1.97 \qquad 10\ln 0.93 \approx -0.725 \Rightarrow 0.48
    xthe yearly rate, 0.07
    x squared over 2the compounding correction, 0.00245, which has the same sign whichever way the rate goes
    lnthe natural log, which turns repeated multiplying into adding
    What it says in wordsTen years of compounding is ten times the log of one year's factor, and the squared term always pulls the result down.
    Ten years of 7% up and 7% down, from 1.000.51.01.52.0Yr 0Yr 5Yr 101.97x0.48x+7% a year-7% a yearZoom on year 10, scale 0.46 to 0.520.460.480.500.52actual 0.4841 / 1.967 = 0.508if they were mirrors1.07 x 0.93 = 0.9951 a yearBoth paths together: 0.952a round trip that still loses about 5%
    Rising 7% a year for ten years turns 1.00 into 1.97 and falling 7% a year turns it into 0.484, below the 0.508 a true mirror would give, so the two paths together leave 0.952, not 1.00.

    Why are the two answers not mirror images?

    Everyday version first: a shirt marked up 7% and then marked down 7% ends below its starting price, because the markdown is taken on the higher price. The x squared term in the log has the same sign whichever way the rate goes, so it drags both paths down: the up path gains a little less than 7% a year in log terms and the down path loses a little more. The true mirror of a 7% rise is a 6.5% fall. Put the two paths together and 1.07 x 0.93 is 0.9951 a year, so ten years of each leaves 0.952: a round trip that still loses about 5%.

    Then say why a growth investor cares. Swings cost compound growth even when the average yearly change is zero. A company whose revenue alternates between up 7% and down 7% averages zero change but ends smaller, losing roughly half the square of the swing every year. The limit is that this is a small effect at 7%; it becomes large at the 30% and 50% swings early-stage revenue can show.

    Where candidates lose it

    The quick wrong answer to the second number is 0.51, one over 1.97, because the candidate assumes a 7% fall reverses a 7% rise. It does not, and the last clause of the question is there to test exactly that.

    The other loss is answering 1.70 and 0.30, as if the rate added up in a straight line. Ten years at 7% nearly doubles money; simple interest would add only 70%.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Estimate 1.12 to the power 6 using the rule of 72.
    • A portfolio company's revenue rises 50% and then falls 50%. Where does it end, and what does that say about volatile growth?
    • What annual rate turns Rs 100 into Rs 300 over ten years?
  3. 053A company's valuation rises 150% at its Series B, falls 60% at its Series C and rises 50% at its Series D, one round a year. What is the net change from the Series A valuation, and what steady annual rate over the three years gives the same result?Mental maths and speed testsCoreSeries A to C VCGrowth equity

    Try it first

    Net change from Series A to Series D?

    Show the worked solution

    Up 50% in all, or about 14.5% a year. Turn each round into a multiplier: up 150% is x 2.5, down 60% is x 0.4, up 50% is x 1.5. The shortcut is that 2.5 x 0.4 is exactly 1, so the Series C fall wiped out the Series B gain, and the net is just Series D's x 1.5. The annual rate is the cube root of 1.5, which sits between 14% and 15%.

    Why can the three percentages not simply be added?

    A shopkeeper who marks a shirt up 150% and then runs a 60% off sale is not ahead by 90%. The markup took Rs 100 to Rs 250, and the sale took 60% of Rs 250, landing back at Rs 100. Each percentage is measured against whatever the value was just before it, so moves in a chain multiply rather than add. Adding gives +140%, a number that describes nothing in this company's history. Multiplying gives 2.5 x 0.4 x 1.5, which is 1.5: a valuation of 100 went to 250, back to 100, then to 150.

    Rounds multiply: 2.5 x 0.4 x 1.5 = 1.5100Series A250Series B100Series C150Series Dx 2.5x 0.4x 1.5Adding the percentages+150 - 60 + 50 = +140%Wrong: each % hasa different baseMultiplying the rounds2.5 x 0.4 x 1.5 = 1.5x+50% in all= 14.5% a year for 3 yrs
    From an index of 100 the valuation rises to 250 at Series B, falls back to 100 at Series C and ends at 150 after Series D, so the three rounds multiply to 1.5x, about 14.5% a year, not the +140% that adding the percentages suggests.

    How do you find the annual rate without a calculator?

    You need the number that, cubed, gives 1.5. Bracket it. 1.14 cubed is about 1.48 and 1.15 cubed is about 1.52, so the rate sits just below 14.5%, and saying 'about 14.5% a year' is the right precision for the room. The exact figure is 14.47%. Check it the other way: half of 50% is 25%, far too high, which is the arithmetic average and the error the question is fishing for.

    The relationship
    (1+r)3=2.5×0.4×1.5=1.5⇒r=1.51/3−1=14.5%(1+r)^3 = 2.5 \times 0.4 \times 1.5 = 1.5 \quad\Rightarrow\quad r = 1.5^{1/3} - 1 = 14.5\%
    2.5, 0.4, 1.5the three rounds written as multipliers
    rthe steady annual rate with the same end result
    What it says in wordsMultiply the rounds to get the total, then take the root for the number of years to get the steady rate.

    One sentence of judgement helps. A company that fell 60% in one round and still ended up 50% ahead over three years has had a volatile path, and the steady 14.5% hides that volatility completely. Investors who entered at the Series B price are down 40% at Series D, which is why the entry round matters as much as the company's overall path.

    Where candidates lose it

    The fast wrong answer is +140%, from adding the three percentages. The second is averaging them to about 47% a round. Both treat percentages as if they shared a base, which is the exact mistake the question is built to catch.

    The slower loss is spotting 2.5 x 0.4 = 1 but then stumbling on the cube root. Bracket it between 1.14 and 1.15 out loud; an interviewer wants to see the method, not four decimal places.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • An investor came in at Series B. What is their multiple at Series D?
    • What single fall at Series C would have left the company flat over the three rounds?
    • Why can a flat overall path still leave some investors well below their entry price?
  4. 084Without a calculator, what is the IRR of an investment that returns 2.5x the money in 4 years? Use anchors you already know, such as 2x in 3 years and 3x in 5 years.Mental maths and speed testsCoreGrowth equityFund of funds and LPs

    Try it first

    Pick the closest before you work it.

    Show the worked solution

    About 26%; the exact figure is 25.7%. Two anchors bracket it: 2x in 3 years is 26.0% and 3x in 5 years is 24.6%. For a sharper figure, take ln 2.5, about 0.92, divide by 4 to get 0.23, and add half its square: about 25.6%. Check by squaring twice: 1.26 squared is 1.59, and 1.59 squared is about 2.5.

    Which anchors should you carry into the room?

    You judge a distance on a road by the milestones, not by pacing it out. Carry a few multiple and years pairs and interpolate between them rather than calculating from scratch. 2x in 3 years is 26.0%, 3x in 5 years is 24.6%, 2x in 4 years is 18.9% and 3x in 4 years is 31.6%. The target, 2.5x in 4 years, lies between the last two and is bracketed by the first two.

    Two anchors near 25% bracket the answer before any arithmetic3 years4 years5 years2.0x26.0%18.9%14.9%2.5x35.7%25.7%20.1%3.0x44.2%31.6%24.6%Green: anchors worth memorising. Lime: the target.In your headln 2.5 is about 0.920.92 / 4 years = 0.23add half its square: + 0.026About 25.5%exact: 25.7%Simple average: 150% / 4= 37.5%, too high
    IRRs for 2x, 2.5x and 3x over 3, 4 and 5 years show that the anchors 2x in 3 years and 3x in 5 years both sit near 25%, and that 2.5x in 4 years is 25.7%, well below the 37.5% a simple average gives.

    How do you land on 26% out loud?

    Route one: interpolate on a log scale. 2.5 sits about 55% of the way from 2 to 3 in log terms, so the IRR sits about 55% of the way from 18.9% to 31.6%, near 26%. Route two uses the log directly. The continuous growth rate is the log of the multiple divided by the years, and adding half its square converts it to an annual rate: 0.23 plus 0.026 is about 25.6%.

    The relationship
    IRR≈ln⁡Mn+12(ln⁡Mn)2=0.229+0.026≈25.6%\text{IRR} \approx \frac{\ln M}{n} + \frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\ln M}{n}\right)^2 = 0.229 + 0.026 \approx 25.6\%
    Mmoney multiple, 2.5
    nyears, 4
    ln Mnatural log of the multiple, about 0.92
    What it says in wordsSpread the log of the multiple evenly over the years, then nudge it up slightly for annual compounding.

    Then check. Squaring twice is the fastest test of a four year rate: 1.26 squared is 1.59, and 1.59 squared is 2.52, close enough to 2.5. The check matters more than the method, because it catches a slip in either route in five seconds.

    Where candidates lose it

    The expensive slip is the simple average: a 150% gain over 4 years is 37.5% a year. It ignores compounding, and it overstates the IRR by more than ten points. Anyone who has done this before hears it immediately.

    The second loss is getting to 25.7% in silence. The interviewer wants the anchors and the check said aloud, because that is how you would sanity check a fund's reported return on a call.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What IRR is 3x in 7 years?
    • A fund makes 2.5x in 4 years, but half its money was only invested for the last 2 years. Is its IRR above or below 26%?
    • Why do investors in a fund ask for both the multiple and the IRR?
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