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014

Case 014Currency derivatives and corporate FX hedgingCore

USD/INR spot is 83.00, one-year rupee rates 7% and dollar rates 5%, and the one-year forward is quoted at 85.50. Is that consistent with covered interest parity, and if not, build the arbitrage for USD 10 million.

1The situation

Shimsha Bank's treasury desk sees USD/INR spot at 83.00. The bank can borrow or lend rupees for one year at 7% and dollars for one year at 5%, both simple annual rates, and it can deal in the one-year forward, which a counterparty is quoting at 85.50 for both buying and selling.

The desk has a line to trade up to USD 10 million. Ignore bid-offer spreads, credit charges and capital costs.

2Your task

What forward rate does covered interest parity imply, which way is the quote wrong, and what exact sequence of trades on USD 10 million captures the difference with no exchange rate risk?

Quick check

Before the formula: rupee rates are 2 points above dollar rates. Should the one-year forward be above or below 83.00, and by roughly how much?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

Parity puts the forward at about 84.58, so 85.50 is too high and the arbitrage is to sell dollars forward against dollars you hold. Borrow Rs 83 crore at 7%, buy USD 10 million at 83, invest it at 5% to have USD 10.5 million in a year, and sell that forward at 85.50 for Rs 89.775 crore. Repay Rs 88.81 crore. The difference, about Rs 96.5 lakh, is locked on day one with no exchange rate exposure.

Step 1What forward does parity imply, and why?

Two routes to the same destination must cost the same or someone will take the cheaper one and sell the dearer. Rs 83 invested for a year at 7% becomes Rs 88.81; one dollar invested at 5% becomes USD 1.05; the forward that makes the two equal is 88.81 over 1.05, about 84.58. That is covered interest parityThe condition that the forward exchange rate equals spot adjusted for the two interest rates, so that borrowing in one currency and lending in the other, with the exchange risk covered forward, earns nothing.. A quote of 85.50 says a dollar in a year costs more rupees than its interest advantage justifies, so the dollar is overpriced forward, and the trade is to be a seller of dollars forward and a holder of dollars now.

The relationship
F∗=S 1+rINR1+rUSD=83.00×1.071.05=84.58Fquoted=85.50F^{*} = S\,\frac{1 + r_{INR}}{1 + r_{USD}} = 83.00 \times \frac{1.07}{1.05} = 84.58 \qquad F_{quoted} = 85.50
Sspot, 83.00 rupees per dollar
r_{INR}, r_{USD}the one-year simple rates, 7% and 5%
F^{*}the forward consistent with parity
What it says in wordsThe fair forward is spot times the ratio of one plus the rupee rate to one plus the dollar rate. The quote is almost a rupee above it.
Step 2What is the exact sequence of trades?

Write the loop so that every leg is covered. Borrow Rs 83 crore for one year at 7%, owing Rs 88.81 crore; buy USD 10 million spot at 83; place the dollars for one year at 5%, which returns USD 10.5 million; and sell exactly USD 10.5 million forward at 85.50, which will bring in Rs 89.775 crore. In a year the forward settles, the rupee loan is repaid, and the bank keeps Rs 96.5 lakh. Nothing in the loop depends on where spot is in a year, which is what makes it an arbitrage and not a bet.

The round trip that the 85.50 forward pays for: borrow rupees, hold dollars, sell them forward1. Borrow rupeesRs 83 crore at 7%2. Buy dollars spotUSD 10 m at 83.003. Invest dollarsone year at 5%: USD 10.5 m4. Sell forward at 85.50USD 10.5 m = Rs 89.775 crore5. Repay the rupee loanRs 88.81 crore6. Keep the differenceRs 96.5 lakh, no FX riskParity forward = 83.00 x 1.07 / 1.05 = 84.58. Quoted 85.50 is 0.92 too high: sell dollars forward, hold them spot.Profit per dollar of the trip: 1.05 x 85.50 - 83 x 1.07 = 0.965 rupees; on USD 10 million, Rs 96.5 lakh.
Borrowing Rs 83 crore at 7%, buying USD 10 million at 83, investing it at 5% to USD 10.5 million and selling that forward at 85.50 for Rs 89.775 crore leaves Rs 96.5 lakh after repaying Rs 88.81 crore, because the quoted forward sits 0.92 above the parity level of 84.58.
LegTodayIn one year
Rupee loan at 7%+Rs 83.00 crore-Rs 88.810 crore
Spot purchase at 83-Rs 83.00 crore, +USD 10.0 m
Dollar deposit at 5%-USD 10.0 m+USD 10.5 m
Forward sale at 85.50-USD 10.5 m, +Rs 89.775 crore
Net0+Rs 0.9650 crore
Every currency leg nets to zero today and in a year, leaving Rs 96.5 lakh of rupees at the end that no exchange rate move can change.
Step 3What would stop a real desk, and what would you add?

In practice the quote would not survive a minute, so the interviewer wants the frictions that let small gaps persist. Bid-offer in spot, forward and both deposit markets eats part of the rupee; the rupee borrowing uses the bank's balance sheet and liquidity lines; the forward and the deposit both carry counterparty exposure for a year; and onshore rupee funding is not freely available to every participant, which is why onshore and offshore forwards can differ. A gap of almost a rupee would still be traded. Say the limits: the rates are simple annual, so a quoted money-market rate on a different day count would move the parity forward by a few paise, and the arbitrage as written assumes the same rate for borrowing and lending in each currency.

Where candidates lose it

Candidates get the direction of the parity forward backwards, reasoning that the higher-rate currency should be stronger forward. It is weaker: the forward premium on the dollar exactly offsets its lower interest rate, and a candidate who starts from 81 and builds the wrong loop loses the question in the first line.

The second loss is selling USD 10 million forward instead of USD 10.5 million. The deposit grows the dollars, and an uncovered half million dollars turns an arbitrage into a currency position.

What the interviewer asks next

  • The forward is quoted at 84.00 instead. Rebuild the loop.
  • Bid-offer is 5 paise in spot, 10 paise in the forward and 10 basis points in each deposit. Does the trade still pay?
  • Why have onshore and offshore rupee forwards differed in the past, and which way would the gap push a bank like Shimsha?
  • How does a one-year currency swap relate to this trade?
← Case 013A client with Rs 5 lakh sells two lots of out-of-the-money index calls at Rs 1.4 lakh margin a lot. A volatility spike and a rally raise margin to Rs 3.1 lakh a lot and the calls lose Rs 60,000. What happens, and what are the client's choices?Case 015 →A fund bought Rs 25 crore of CDS protection at 200 bp running. The reference company defaults 40 days after the last coupon date and the auction sets recovery at 35%. What does the seller pay, and what accrued premium does the buyer owe?

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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