Case 026Option pricing and arbitrage checksHard
Anamudi Technologies grants one lakh employee options at the money, with a four-year expected term, 35% volatility and a 7% rate. What is the grant worth, how much does dilution change it, and why not use the ten-year contract life?
1The situation
Anamudi Technologies, a listed software company with 10 crore shares outstanding, grants 1,00,000 employee stock options. Each option carries the right to buy one new share at Rs 300, with the stock at Rs 300 today. The options vest over time and expire ten years after grant. The finance team's model inputs are a volatility of 35% a year, a continuously compounded rate of 7%, no dividend, and an expected term of four years rather than the ten-year contract life.
The treasurer wants three things for the board paper: a value per option, the effect of the new shares on that value, and a sentence on why the model uses four years when the contract says ten.
2Your task
Value one option with the four-year term, adjust for dilution, state the total grant cost, and explain why the expected term matters more than the dilution adjustment.
Quick check
Switching from the ten-year contract life to a four-year expected term does what to the value of an at-the-money option?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
Each option is worth about Rs 114 on a four-year term, Rs 114 after dilution, so the grant costs about Rs 1.14 crore. The ten-year life would say Rs 185, so the choice of term moves the value by Rs 71 while dilution moves it by a few paise. Employees cannot sell or hedge the option, so they exercise early or leave, and four years is the life the option actually has.
Step 1What is one option worth on a four-year term?
Set it up as a plain call. Spot and strike are both Rs 300, so the option is at the money; the rate is 7%, volatility 35% and the term four years. The model gives d1 of 0.75, d2 of 0.05, and a value of about Rs 114 per option. Say the pieces aloud: Rs 300 times N(d1) of 0.773 is Rs 232, less Rs 300 discounted four years at 7%, Rs 227, times N(d2) of 0.520, Rs 118. The option is worth about 38% of the share price, which is the usual order of magnitude for a four-year at-the-money call at this volatility.
| S | share price, Rs 300 |
| K | exercise price, Rs 300 |
| T | expected term, four years |
| \sigma | volatility, 35% a year |
| r | continuously compounded rate, 7% |
Step 2How much does dilution change the answer?
When an employee exercises, Anamudi issues a new share rather than buying one in the market, so every holder owns a slightly smaller slice. Think of a cake cut for ten guests when an eleventh arrives: every slice shrinks, but if the eleventh guest is one lakh options against ten crore shares, the shrink is invisible. The dilution factor is N over N plus M, 10 crore over 10 crore plus one lakh, which is 0.99900, so the adjusted value is Rs 114.01 against Rs 114.12. The grant costs 1,00,000 times Rs 114.01, about Rs 1.14 crore. Dilution would matter for a company whose option pool is 10% of its shares; here it is 0.1%.
Step 3Why four years when the contract says ten?
A traded option is held by someone who can sell it or hedge it, so holding to the end is free. An employee can do neither. Her wealth and her salary already sit in the company, so once the option is comfortably in the money she exercises and diversifies, and if she leaves before vesting the option lapses. The expected term is the average life the options actually have once early exercise and forfeiture are allowed for, and it is estimated from the company's own exercise history, not chosen. The accounting standards for share-based payment, Ind AS 102 and IFRS 2, require the expected term for exactly this reason; confirm the current wording before quoting it in a board paper.
Close with what the board should hear. The cost is about Rs 1.14 crore spread over the vesting period, and the two assumptions worth challenging are the term and the volatility, because each moves the number by tens of rupees per option; the dilution adjustment is a formality at this scale. If the company also expects, say, 10% of the grants to lapse unvested, the expense falls to about Rs 1.03 crore, but that forfeiture estimate is trued up as people actually leave. State the limitation: the model treats the four-year option as if it were a traded European call, which overstates value for an employee who exercises in a pattern rather than at one date, and the lattice models that handle that pattern are the natural next step.
Where candidates lose it
The common loss is reaching for the ten-year life because it is the only date on the contract, which overstates the cost by about Rs 71 per option, or around 63%. The contract life is the maximum; the model needs the expected life.
The second is spending the interview on the dilution formula. It is worth stating in one line and then dismissing with the numbers: one lakh options on ten crore shares changes the value by a few paise, and an interviewer wants to hear you rank the inputs by what they move.
What the interviewer asks next
- The company pays a Rs 6 dividend each year. Which way does the option value move, and roughly by how much?
- How would you estimate the expected term for a company that has never granted options before?
- Why does the accounting expense not change when the share price later falls below the strike?
- If the option pool were 15% of shares outstanding, how would you redo the dilution adjustment and why does the volatility input then also change?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
