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087

Case 087Volatility tradingHard

A stock reports results in five trading days. The one-week option trades at 60% implied volatility against 30% on a normal day. What move is priced for results day, and would you sell the one-week straddle or a calendar against the one-month at 38%?

1The situation

Sabari Pharma trades at Rs 1,200 and reports quarterly results before the open on the fifth trading day from now, the day the weekly options expire. The at-the-money one-week options trade at 60% implied volatility and the one-month options at 38%. On days without news the stock moves with about 30% annualised volatility. The interest rate is 6.5%.

Over its last eight results, the stock's results-day moves, ignoring direction, were 4.2%, 3.1%, 6.8%, 2.5%, 5.4%, 3.6%, 9.5%, 4.0%. A trader on your desk wants to sell the event. The choice is between selling the one-week straddle outright, or selling it and buying the one-month straddle against it, a calendar.

2Your task

What results-day move is the one-week option pricing, is it rich against history, and which structure would you put on?

Quick check

Roughly what results-day move does a 60% one-week implied volatility price, if ordinary days run at 30%?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

The one-week option prices a results-day move of about 7.6%, against a historical typical move of about 5.3%, so the event is rich; the calendar is the better way to sell it. Selling the straddle alone collects about Rs 81 a share but loses Rs 33 on a repeat of the worst past move. The calendar keeps part of the edge, about Rs 10 on average across past moves against Rs 22 for the straddle, and cuts that worst loss to Rs 10.

Step 1How do you take the event out of a volatility number?

A week's commute is four normal days and one day with a road closure. If you know the week's total and what a normal day takes, the closure day is whatever is left. Options work the same way, with one rule: you subtract variances, the squares of moves, never volatilities. The week's variance is 0.60 squared times 5/252, about 71.4 in units of 0.0001. Each ordinary day is 0.30 squared over 252, about 3.57, so four of them use 14.29. The remaining 57.1 belongs to results day, and its square root is a standard deviation of 7.56%. An ordinary day, for comparison, is 1.89%.

The relationship
σevent=σw25252−4 σn21252=0.36×5252−4×0.09252≈7.56%\sigma_{\text{event}} = \sqrt{\sigma_{w}^2 \tfrac{5}{252} - 4\,\sigma_{n}^2 \tfrac{1}{252}} = \sqrt{0.36 \times \tfrac{5}{252} - 4 \times \tfrac{0.09}{252}} \approx 7.56\%
\sigma_wthe one-week implied volatility, 60%
\sigma_nthe ordinary-day volatility, 30% a year
5/252, 1/252the week and one day as fractions of a trading year
What it says in wordsThe results-day move is the square root of the week's variance after the four ordinary days' variance has been taken out.
Strip out the ordinary days and what is left is the results-day moveOne-week option at 60%: 4 ordinary days + results dayresults daymove of 7.56%4 ordinary days at 1.89% eachtotal variance 71.4 (x 0.0001)One-month option at 38%: 20 ordinary days + results dayresults daymove of 6.99%20 ordinary days at 1.89% eachtotal variance 120.3 (x 0.0001)Bar length is variance, the square of the move: it adds across days, standard deviation does not.
The one-week option's variance is mostly results day, a move of 7.56%, while the one-month option prices the same results day at only 6.99%, so the week is where the event is dearest.
Step 2Is the priced move rich or cheap?

Compare like with like. The implied 7.56% is a standard deviation, so set it against the root mean square of past moves, not their plain average: the eight results give 5.34%, with a plain average of 4.89%. The option is pricing a results day about 1.4 times the size the stock has typically delivered, which is the edge a seller is paid for. The month tells the same story from another angle. Take out twenty ordinary days and the month prices the event at 6.99%, and the sixteen days after results imply only 27.8% volatility, below the stock's normal 30%. So the week is dear and the post-results month is, if anything, cheap.

Step 3Which structure, and what does each lose in a big move?

The straddle costs Rs 80.85 a share, about 6.74% of the price, and the seller keeps it all only if the stock does not move. The calendar sells that straddle and buys the one-month straddle for Rs 104.82; after results, the month option still has sixteen days to run, and if its volatility settles back at 30%, its value after a large move cushions the short week. Across the eight past moves the straddle would have averaged Rs 22.2 a share and the calendar Rs 10.1, but on the 9.5% move the straddle loses Rs 33.1 against Rs 9.5 for the calendar. Paying away part of the edge to cut the worst historical loss to about a third is the trade a risk manager will sign.

Short straddle against calendar: P&L per share by size of the results move-60-30+30+60+9000%3%6%9%12%Size of the results-day move, either directionhistory: typical move 5.3%priced: 7.6%short straddle at 12%: -63calendar at 12%: -148148
The short straddle earns Rs 81 a share if the stock does not move but loses Rs 63 on a 12% move; the calendar earns Rs 48 at no move and loses only Rs 14 at 12%, with the priced 7.6% move well above the typical historical 5.3%.

State the limits. Eight results are a small sample, and a single surprise, a drug approval or a regulatory warning, can deliver a move outside anything in the history. The calendar's cushion depends on the month's volatility after results: if the news is bad enough that the month reprices to 45% rather than 30%, the long leg is worth more, but if the stock goes quiet and the month falls below 30%, the long leg loses more than modelled. Size the trade so the worst historical move, plus a margin, is a loss the book can take.

Where candidates lose it

The common loss is subtracting volatilities: 60% minus 30% leaves 30% for the event, which says nothing about a single day. Variances add across days; convert to variance, subtract, then take the square root.

The second is comparing the implied standard deviation with the plain average of past moves. A standard deviation is a root mean square, and for a normal move the average absolute move is only about 0.8 of it, so mixing the two misstates how rich the option is.

What the interviewer asks next

  • How would you size the calendar so that a repeat of the 9.5% move costs no more than Rs 20 lakh?
  • If the one-month volatility were 45% instead of 38%, would you still prefer the calendar?
  • Why might the market rationally price a bigger move this quarter than history suggests?
  • How would you hedge the delta of the short straddle during the four ordinary days?
← Case 086An adviser compares a three-year note paying 100% of the index's price rise, with no protection, against a plain index fund. The index yields 1.3% a year in dividends. What does the note holder give up, and how do you explain it to the client?Case 088 →A client buys Rs 25 crore notional of three-month 105% calls on a stock at 400. Mid volatility is 28% and the desk charges 1.5 points. Price the charge, set up the hedge, and work the P&L if realised volatility turns out to be 32%.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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