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  1. 016You walk into a casino with Rs 63,000 and bet Rs 1,000 on red at even money, where red comes up 48% of the time. Every time you lose, you double the bet. You stop at the first win, or when you cannot cover the next bet. What is the chance you lose everything, and what is your expected result?Betting and sizingCoreRisk managementProp trading firms

    Try it first

    Before any arithmetic: the plan ends a session up Rs 1,000 about 98 times in 100. What is its expected result per session?

    Show the worked solution

    You lose everything about 2.0% of the time, 0.52 to the sixth power, and the expected result is about minus Rs 265. Rs 63,000 covers exactly six bets: 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 and 32 thousand. A win at any of them recovers every earlier loss and nets Rs 1,000, which happens 98.0% of the time. Six losses in a row cost all Rs 63,000. Weighted, 980 of expected winnings against 1,246 of expected loss leaves minus Rs 265.

    Why does a plan that wins 98 times in 100 still lose money?

    Picture a friend who sells phone insurance to classmates for Rs 50 a month. Month after month nobody drops a phone, and the Rs 50 notes pile up; it feels like free money until the month three phones go into a pond. A win rate tells you how often you are paid, not how much you are paid against how much you can lose, and the expected value needs both. Doubling after every loss builds exactly that shape: Rs 1,000 collected almost every time, and Rs 63,000 handed back rarely. The rare branch is 63 times the size of the common one, so a 2% chance of it more than cancels a 98% chance of the small win.

    Doubling: a tall bar of small wins, a thin bar of total loss-60k-40k-20k0Result of one session, Rs+Rs 1,000 in 98.0% of sessionsany win in six bets nets exactly 1,000minus Rs 63,000 in 2.0%six losses in a row, 0.52 to the 6thAdd the two branches0.980 x (+1,000)+9800.0198 x (-63,000)-1,246Expected result-265Same number, the trader's wayexpected amount staked Rs 6,633edge per rupee 0.48 - 0.52 = -4%-4% x 6,633 = -265doubling changes the stake, not the edge
    The doubling plan ends a session up Rs 1,000 with probability 98.0% and down Rs 63,000 with probability 2.0%, and weighting the two gives plus 980 against minus 1,246, an expected result of minus Rs 265, which is also 4% of the Rs 6,633 the plan expects to stake.

    How do you lay out the six bets in the room?

    Write the ladder down before computing anything. The stakes are 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 and 32 thousand, which add to 63 thousand exactly, so the seventh bet of 64 thousand can never be placed. If the first win comes at bet k, it pays 2 to the power k minus 1 thousand, and the losses before it add to one thousand less than that, so every winning session nets exactly plus Rs 1,000. There are only two outcomes, and the table shows how quickly the chance of reaching each rung falls: by the sixth bet you are staking Rs 32,000 to recover Rs 31,000 of losses and win one more thousand.

    BetStake (Rs)Lost before it (Rs)Chance of reaching it
    11,0000100.0%
    22,0001,00052.0%
    34,0003,00027.0%
    48,0007,00014.1%
    516,00015,0007.3%
    632,00031,0003.8%
    Each rung doubles the stake while the chance of reaching it falls by a factor of 0.52, and the chance of losing the sixth bet as well is 1.98%, the probability of ruin.
    The relationship
    E=(1−0.526)(+1,000)+0.526(−63,000)=0.9802(1,000)−0.0198(63,000)≈−265E = (1 - 0.52^6)(+1{,}000) + 0.52^6(-63{,}000) = 0.9802(1{,}000) - 0.0198(63{,}000) \approx -265
    0.52^6the chance of six losses in a row, about 2%
    +1,000the net result of any session that wins before the money runs out
    -63,000the whole bankroll, lost when all six bets lose
    What it says in wordsThe expected result is the frequent small win times its probability plus the rare total loss times its probability, and the second term is larger.

    Is there a faster way to see the sign without the ladder?

    Yes, and it is the one a trader reaches for first. Every rupee placed on red loses 4 paise on average, whatever happened on the previous spin, because the wheel has no memory. The expected result of any staking plan is the edge per rupee times the expected total amount staked: here minus 4% of Rs 6,633, which is minus Rs 265, the same figure as the ladder. Doubling raises the amount you put down when you are losing; it cannot change the sign of the edge. On a fair 50/50 wheel the same plan has an expected value of exactly zero, with the same lopsided shape.

    Why does a desk interviewer care about a roulette plan?

    Because the shape is the shape of selling far out-of-the-money options, or of adding to a losing position to get back to flat. Both produce a long run of small gains and a rare large loss, and a good-looking track record says almost nothing about the tail. Repetition makes the rare branch common: play 50 sessions and the chance of at least one ruin is 1 minus 0.98 to the 50th, about 63%. The limitation to state is that the plan assumes no table limit; a casino maximum bet cuts the ladder short and makes ruin more likely, not less.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common answer is that the plan wins, because it almost always wins. Candidates quote the 98% and stop, never weighing it against the size of the 2% branch. A probability without a payoff is half an expected value.

    The second loss is the opposite slip: computing minus 4% of the Rs 63,000 bankroll, about minus Rs 2,520. The edge applies to rupees actually staked, and most sessions stake only Rs 1,000 or Rs 3,000 before the first win. Expected stake, Rs 6,633, is the base.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The wheel is fair, 50/50. What is the expected result now, and what is the chance of ruin?
    • You have unlimited money but the table caps any single bet at Rs 16,000. How does the picture change?
    • Name a trading strategy with the same payoff shape, and say how you would size it.
  2. 030A coin falls your way 60% of the time and pays even money. What fraction of your capital should you bet each time, and what growth rate does that give?Betting and sizingCoreOptiverAustin · 2025

    Try it first

    What fraction of your capital goes on each flip?

    Show the worked solution

    Bet 20% of your capital each time, for a growth rate of about 2.0% per bet. The Kelly fraction at even money is the edge, p minus q, which is 0.6 minus 0.4. The expected log growth is 0.6 x ln(1.2) + 0.4 x ln(0.8) = 0.0201, so capital typically grows by a factor of about 7.5 over 100 bets. Bet twice that, 40%, and the growth turns slightly negative, -0.24% a bet: anything beyond about 39% loses money despite the edge.

    Why not bet everything on a coin that favours you?

    A street vendor with a stall that makes money six days in seven does not spend the whole float on stock each morning, because the seventh day would end the business. Expected value is the right guide for a single bet with money you can replace, but when you must survive to play again, what matters is the growth of your capital over many bets, and that is governed by the average of the logarithm, not the average of the rupees. Betting all of it has the highest expected value and a certainty of ruin: one loss and there is nothing left to compound. The logarithm punishes that loss infinitely, which is the mathematical way of saying you cannot come back from zero.

    The relationship
    g(f)=pln⁡(1+f)+qln⁡(1−f),f∗=p−q=0.2,g(0.2)=0.6ln⁡1.2+0.4ln⁡0.8≈0.0201g(f) = p\ln(1+f) + q\ln(1-f), \qquad f^* = p - q = 0.2, \qquad g(0.2) = 0.6\ln 1.2 + 0.4\ln 0.8 \approx 0.0201
    fthe fraction of capital staked on each bet
    p, qthe chance of winning and of losing, 0.6 and 0.4
    f starthe fraction that maximises long-run growth; at even money it is the edge
    gthe expected log growth per bet, about 2% here
    What it says in wordsMaximise the average log of your wealth after one bet, and at even money the best stake is simply the edge.
    Growth per bet against the fraction staked: the peak is at edge over odds, 20%-3%-2%-1%0+1%+2%0%10%20%30%40%50%60%fraction of capital staked each betexpected log growth per betKelly 20%: 2.01% a bethalf Kelly 10%: 1.50%double Kelly 40%: -0.24%turns negative at about 39%ruin in slow motionOver 100 bets the typical path multiplies capital by 7.5x at 20%, 4.5x at 10%, and 0.78x at 40%The flat top means under-betting costs little; the steep right side means over-betting costs everything
    Expected log growth per bet rises from zero to a peak of 2.01% at a 20% stake and falls back through zero at about 39%, so half Kelly keeps three quarters of the growth while double Kelly, just past the crossing, loses a little on every bet.

    Where does the 20% come from, and what if the odds are not even?

    Differentiate g with respect to f and set it to zero: p over (1 + f) equals q over (1 - f), which gives f = p - q. At even money that is the edge, 0.2. For a bet that pays b to 1 the formula becomes (bp - q) over b, edge over odds. Say the general form, because the interviewer will often move the payout: at 2 to 1 on the same coin the stake becomes (1.2 - 0.4) / 2 = 40%, and at odds where bp is below q the right stake is zero. The growth at 20% is 0.0201 per bet, which compounds to a factor of e to the 2.01, about 7.5 times, over 100 bets on the typical path. That is the median outcome, not the average: a few lucky paths do far better and pull the mean up.

    Why do desks bet less than Kelly?

    The curve is flat on the left and steep on the right. Half Kelly, 10%, still delivers 1.50% a bet, three quarters of the peak, with far smaller swings. Double Kelly, 40%, delivers -0.24%, already below zero, with wild swings: the crossing point is about 39%, and anything beyond it shrinks capital in the long run even though every single bet has positive expected value. Over-betting is punished much harder than under-betting, and in real trading the 60% is an estimate rather than a fact, so sizing at a fraction of Kelly is the standard discipline. The limitation to state: Kelly assumes you know p, that bets are independent and repeated, and that you can resize freely; on a desk, position limits and the uncertainty in your edge usually bind before the formula does.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common loss is answering with the expected value: 60% of the time you win, so bet big, or even bet everything. The interviewer wants to hear that growth is about the log, that ruin ends the game, and that the stake is the edge, 20%.

    The second is giving 20% but no growth rate, or quoting the 20% expected return per rupee as the growth rate. The growth per bet is about 2%, far below the 20% edge, because the losses bite on a shrinking base.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The coin pays 2 to 1 instead of even money. What is the stake now?
    • Why does half Kelly give three quarters of the growth? What is the general relationship?
    • You are only 60% sure the coin is 60% biased. How does that change the stake?
    • What is the probability that a full-Kelly bettor halves their capital at some point before doubling it?

    Asked at Optiver, Quantitative Research, Austin, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis): Use Kelly Criterion

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