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  1. 016You walk into a casino with Rs 63,000 and bet Rs 1,000 on red at even money, where red comes up 48% of the time. Every time you lose, you double the bet. You stop at the first win, or when you cannot cover the next bet. What is the chance you lose everything, and what is your expected result?Betting and sizingCoreRisk managementProp trading firms

    Try it first

    Before any arithmetic: the plan ends a session up Rs 1,000 about 98 times in 100. What is its expected result per session?

    Show the worked solution

    You lose everything about 2.0% of the time, 0.52 to the sixth power, and the expected result is about minus Rs 265. Rs 63,000 covers exactly six bets: 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 and 32 thousand. A win at any of them recovers every earlier loss and nets Rs 1,000, which happens 98.0% of the time. Six losses in a row cost all Rs 63,000. Weighted, 980 of expected winnings against 1,246 of expected loss leaves minus Rs 265.

    Why does a plan that wins 98 times in 100 still lose money?

    Picture a friend who sells phone insurance to classmates for Rs 50 a month. Month after month nobody drops a phone, and the Rs 50 notes pile up; it feels like free money until the month three phones go into a pond. A win rate tells you how often you are paid, not how much you are paid against how much you can lose, and the expected value needs both. Doubling after every loss builds exactly that shape: Rs 1,000 collected almost every time, and Rs 63,000 handed back rarely. The rare branch is 63 times the size of the common one, so a 2% chance of it more than cancels a 98% chance of the small win.

    Doubling: a tall bar of small wins, a thin bar of total loss-60k-40k-20k0Result of one session, Rs+Rs 1,000 in 98.0% of sessionsany win in six bets nets exactly 1,000minus Rs 63,000 in 2.0%six losses in a row, 0.52 to the 6thAdd the two branches0.980 x (+1,000)+9800.0198 x (-63,000)-1,246Expected result-265Same number, the trader's wayexpected amount staked Rs 6,633edge per rupee 0.48 - 0.52 = -4%-4% x 6,633 = -265doubling changes the stake, not the edge
    The doubling plan ends a session up Rs 1,000 with probability 98.0% and down Rs 63,000 with probability 2.0%, and weighting the two gives plus 980 against minus 1,246, an expected result of minus Rs 265, which is also 4% of the Rs 6,633 the plan expects to stake.

    How do you lay out the six bets in the room?

    Write the ladder down before computing anything. The stakes are 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 and 32 thousand, which add to 63 thousand exactly, so the seventh bet of 64 thousand can never be placed. If the first win comes at bet k, it pays 2 to the power k minus 1 thousand, and the losses before it add to one thousand less than that, so every winning session nets exactly plus Rs 1,000. There are only two outcomes, and the table shows how quickly the chance of reaching each rung falls: by the sixth bet you are staking Rs 32,000 to recover Rs 31,000 of losses and win one more thousand.

    BetStake (Rs)Lost before it (Rs)Chance of reaching it
    11,0000100.0%
    22,0001,00052.0%
    34,0003,00027.0%
    48,0007,00014.1%
    516,00015,0007.3%
    632,00031,0003.8%
    Each rung doubles the stake while the chance of reaching it falls by a factor of 0.52, and the chance of losing the sixth bet as well is 1.98%, the probability of ruin.
    The relationship
    E=(1−0.526)(+1,000)+0.526(−63,000)=0.9802(1,000)−0.0198(63,000)≈−265E = (1 - 0.52^6)(+1{,}000) + 0.52^6(-63{,}000) = 0.9802(1{,}000) - 0.0198(63{,}000) \approx -265
    0.52^6the chance of six losses in a row, about 2%
    +1,000the net result of any session that wins before the money runs out
    -63,000the whole bankroll, lost when all six bets lose
    What it says in wordsThe expected result is the frequent small win times its probability plus the rare total loss times its probability, and the second term is larger.

    Is there a faster way to see the sign without the ladder?

    Yes, and it is the one a trader reaches for first. Every rupee placed on red loses 4 paise on average, whatever happened on the previous spin, because the wheel has no memory. The expected result of any staking plan is the edge per rupee times the expected total amount staked: here minus 4% of Rs 6,633, which is minus Rs 265, the same figure as the ladder. Doubling raises the amount you put down when you are losing; it cannot change the sign of the edge. On a fair 50/50 wheel the same plan has an expected value of exactly zero, with the same lopsided shape.

    Why does a desk interviewer care about a roulette plan?

    Because the shape is the shape of selling far out-of-the-money options, or of adding to a losing position to get back to flat. Both produce a long run of small gains and a rare large loss, and a good-looking track record says almost nothing about the tail. Repetition makes the rare branch common: play 50 sessions and the chance of at least one ruin is 1 minus 0.98 to the 50th, about 63%. The limitation to state is that the plan assumes no table limit; a casino maximum bet cuts the ladder short and makes ruin more likely, not less.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common answer is that the plan wins, because it almost always wins. Candidates quote the 98% and stop, never weighing it against the size of the 2% branch. A probability without a payoff is half an expected value.

    The second loss is the opposite slip: computing minus 4% of the Rs 63,000 bankroll, about minus Rs 2,520. The edge applies to rupees actually staked, and most sessions stake only Rs 1,000 or Rs 3,000 before the first win. Expected stake, Rs 6,633, is the base.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The wheel is fair, 50/50. What is the expected result now, and what is the chance of ruin?
    • You have unlimited money but the table caps any single bet at Rs 16,000. How does the picture change?
    • Name a trading strategy with the same payoff shape, and say how you would size it.
  2. 023A ticket pays Rs 100 if a card drawn from a well-shuffled standard deck is a picture card (jack, queen or king), and nothing otherwise. I quote the ticket at 20 bid, 22 offered. Would you trade, and on which side?Betting and sizingWarm upAkuna CapitalChicago · 2026

    Try it first

    Before you work out the fraction: the right action against a 20 bid, 22 offered quote is

    Show the worked solution

    Yes: buy at 22, because the ticket is worth 23.08. A standard deck has 12 picture cards out of 52, a 23.1% chance, so the fair value of a Rs 100 payout is 12/52 x 100 = 23.08. You buy at the offer, 22, which is below fair, and expect to make about Rs 1.08 a ticket. Selling at 20 would give away about Rs 3.08. The edge is small next to the outcome, so it pays only over many tickets.

    How do you value the ticket?

    If a friend offers you Rs 100 when a coin lands heads, you would pay up to Rs 50 and no more; the coin's odds set the price. A ticket that pays a fixed amount on an event is worth the payout times the probability of the event, before any talk of the quote. A standard deck has four suits, each with a jack, a queen and a king, so 12 picture cards in 52. The ticket is worth 12/52 x 100 = 3/13 x 100 = 23.08. Notice that the ace is not a picture card; counting it is the quickest way to get 16/52 and the wrong side.

    The relationship
    V=1252×100=313×100≈23.08V = \frac{12}{52} \times 100 = \frac{3}{13} \times 100 \approx 23.08
    12picture cards: jack, queen and king in four suits
    52cards in the deck
    100the payout in rupees if a picture card is drawn
    What it says in wordsThe ticket is worth its payout times the chance of being paid.

    Which side of the quote do you compare with?

    A quote has two prices, and you can only use one of each: you buy at the offer and sell at the bid. Trade only when fair value sits outside the quote: buy when it is above the offer, sell when it is below the bid, and pass when it falls between them. Here fair is 23.08 against a 22 offer, so you buy and expect 1.08. The figure runs two other quotes for contrast: at 22 bid, 24 offered, fair is inside and there is no trade; at 24 bid, 26 offered, you sell at 24 and expect 0.92.

    Compare fair value with each side of the quote, not with the middlefair value 12/52 x 100 = 23.0820 bid, 22 offered2022buy at 22+1.0822 bid, 24 offered2224no tradefair is inside24 bid, 26 offered2426sell at 24+0.92Buy when fair is above the offer; sell when it is below the bid; otherwise pass
    Against a fair value of 23.08, the quote of 20 bid, 22 offered lets you buy below fair for an expected 1.08 a ticket, a quote of 22 at 24 straddles fair and gives no trade, and a quote of 24 at 26 lets you sell above fair for an expected 0.92.

    How much would you buy, and what could change your mind?

    Each ticket pays 0 or 100, so its standard deviation is 100 x the square root of 0.231 x 0.769, about Rs 42, against an edge of Rs 1.08. The edge is real but small next to the noise, so it is worth taking in size over many independent draws and worth very little on a single ticket. Before trading, ask the two questions a desk would: is the deck standard and well shuffled, and does the person quoting know something you do not, such as a card already removed? The limitation of the clean answer is that it trusts the setup; in a game where the quoter controls the deck, a quote this generous is itself a warning.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common slip is to sell at 20 on the feeling that the ticket usually loses. That is true and already priced: losing most of the time is why the ticket is worth 23, not 50. Value it first, then compare.

    The second loss is comparing fair value with the middle of the quote, 21, and saying buy without naming the price. You buy at the offer. Saying buy at 20 tells the interviewer you do not know which side of a quote you can trade on.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The ticket now pays on a picture card or an ace. Where would you trade against the same quote?
    • I draw a card, look at it without showing you, and then quote 20 at 22. What do you do now?
    • Make me your own market on the original ticket, and say why you chose that width.

    Asked at Akuna Capital, Junior Trader Interview, Chicago, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis): if you win you get 1$. how much money would be a fair bet.

  3. 030A coin falls your way 60% of the time and pays even money. What fraction of your capital should you bet each time, and what growth rate does that give?Betting and sizingCoreOptiverAustin · 2025

    Try it first

    What fraction of your capital goes on each flip?

    Show the worked solution

    Bet 20% of your capital each time, for a growth rate of about 2.0% per bet. The Kelly fraction at even money is the edge, p minus q, which is 0.6 minus 0.4. The expected log growth is 0.6 x ln(1.2) + 0.4 x ln(0.8) = 0.0201, so capital typically grows by a factor of about 7.5 over 100 bets. Bet twice that, 40%, and the growth turns slightly negative, -0.24% a bet: anything beyond about 39% loses money despite the edge.

    Why not bet everything on a coin that favours you?

    A street vendor with a stall that makes money six days in seven does not spend the whole float on stock each morning, because the seventh day would end the business. Expected value is the right guide for a single bet with money you can replace, but when you must survive to play again, what matters is the growth of your capital over many bets, and that is governed by the average of the logarithm, not the average of the rupees. Betting all of it has the highest expected value and a certainty of ruin: one loss and there is nothing left to compound. The logarithm punishes that loss infinitely, which is the mathematical way of saying you cannot come back from zero.

    The relationship
    g(f)=pln⁡(1+f)+qln⁡(1−f),f∗=p−q=0.2,g(0.2)=0.6ln⁡1.2+0.4ln⁡0.8≈0.0201g(f) = p\ln(1+f) + q\ln(1-f), \qquad f^* = p - q = 0.2, \qquad g(0.2) = 0.6\ln 1.2 + 0.4\ln 0.8 \approx 0.0201
    fthe fraction of capital staked on each bet
    p, qthe chance of winning and of losing, 0.6 and 0.4
    f starthe fraction that maximises long-run growth; at even money it is the edge
    gthe expected log growth per bet, about 2% here
    What it says in wordsMaximise the average log of your wealth after one bet, and at even money the best stake is simply the edge.
    Growth per bet against the fraction staked: the peak is at edge over odds, 20%-3%-2%-1%0+1%+2%0%10%20%30%40%50%60%fraction of capital staked each betexpected log growth per betKelly 20%: 2.01% a bethalf Kelly 10%: 1.50%double Kelly 40%: -0.24%turns negative at about 39%ruin in slow motionOver 100 bets the typical path multiplies capital by 7.5x at 20%, 4.5x at 10%, and 0.78x at 40%The flat top means under-betting costs little; the steep right side means over-betting costs everything
    Expected log growth per bet rises from zero to a peak of 2.01% at a 20% stake and falls back through zero at about 39%, so half Kelly keeps three quarters of the growth while double Kelly, just past the crossing, loses a little on every bet.

    Where does the 20% come from, and what if the odds are not even?

    Differentiate g with respect to f and set it to zero: p over (1 + f) equals q over (1 - f), which gives f = p - q. At even money that is the edge, 0.2. For a bet that pays b to 1 the formula becomes (bp - q) over b, edge over odds. Say the general form, because the interviewer will often move the payout: at 2 to 1 on the same coin the stake becomes (1.2 - 0.4) / 2 = 40%, and at odds where bp is below q the right stake is zero. The growth at 20% is 0.0201 per bet, which compounds to a factor of e to the 2.01, about 7.5 times, over 100 bets on the typical path. That is the median outcome, not the average: a few lucky paths do far better and pull the mean up.

    Why do desks bet less than Kelly?

    The curve is flat on the left and steep on the right. Half Kelly, 10%, still delivers 1.50% a bet, three quarters of the peak, with far smaller swings. Double Kelly, 40%, delivers -0.24%, already below zero, with wild swings: the crossing point is about 39%, and anything beyond it shrinks capital in the long run even though every single bet has positive expected value. Over-betting is punished much harder than under-betting, and in real trading the 60% is an estimate rather than a fact, so sizing at a fraction of Kelly is the standard discipline. The limitation to state: Kelly assumes you know p, that bets are independent and repeated, and that you can resize freely; on a desk, position limits and the uncertainty in your edge usually bind before the formula does.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common loss is answering with the expected value: 60% of the time you win, so bet big, or even bet everything. The interviewer wants to hear that growth is about the log, that ruin ends the game, and that the stake is the edge, 20%.

    The second is giving 20% but no growth rate, or quoting the 20% expected return per rupee as the growth rate. The growth per bet is about 2%, far below the 20% edge, because the losses bite on a shrinking base.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The coin pays 2 to 1 instead of even money. What is the stake now?
    • Why does half Kelly give three quarters of the growth? What is the general relationship?
    • You are only 60% sure the coin is 60% biased. How does that change the stake?
    • What is the probability that a full-Kelly bettor halves their capital at some point before doubling it?

    Asked at Optiver, Quantitative Research, Austin, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis): Use Kelly Criterion

  4. 051You have the same 60% coin as before and even money on every flip, but now you bet half your capital every time. After 100 bets, what does your typical outcome look like, even though every single bet has positive expected value?Betting and sizingHardRisk managementHedge funds

    Try it first

    Each bet has a 10% edge on the money at risk. Where does betting half your stack 100 times leave the typical player?

    Show the worked solution

    The typical player ends with about 3% of the starting capital, while the average outcome is about 13,781 times the start. With 60 wins and 40 losses the stack is multiplied by 1.5 to the 60 and 0.5 to the 40, which is 0.033. Betting half the stack is 2.5 times the Kelly fraction of 20%, and anything beyond twice Kelly turns a positive-edge game into a losing one for the person actually playing it.

    Why can every bet be favourable and the typical result still be a loss?

    Think of a shopkeeper who doubles the stock every time a line sells and halves it every time it does not. A good line sells six times in ten, yet after a hundred cycles the shelf is nearly bare, because growth is a chain of multiplications and the order of operations does not rescue you. Expected value is an average across many imaginary players, but your capital follows one path, and a path is a product of factors, not a sum. Betting half the stack makes each win a factor of 1.5 and each loss a factor of 0.5. Sixty wins and forty losses, the most likely split, multiply to 0.033. The arithmetic mean of 13,781 is carried by the rare paths with 80 or 90 wins, which almost nobody lives on.

    The same 100 bets: the average flies, the typical player is nearly wiped outAverage path (mean)start = 1050100betsx 13,781Typical path (60 wins, 40 losses)start = 1050100betsx 0.033, about 3% left0.01110010,000x startEach bet: 0.6 x log 1.5 + 0.4 x log 0.5 = -0.034, so the typical path shrinks 3.4% a bet
    On a shared log scale, the average path compounds at 1.1 per bet to about 13,781 times the start after 100 bets, while the typical path of 60 wins and 40 losses shrinks by 3.4% per bet to about 3% of the start, because capital multiplies and the half-stack bet makes the loss factor too harsh.

    What is the right quantity to look at instead of the mean?

    Look at the expected growth rate of the logarithm of capital, because the log turns products into sums and the law of large numbers then works. Each bet changes log capital by 0.6 x log(1.5) + 0.4 x log(0.5), which is -0.034, a negative number, so the typical player loses about 3.4% of capital per bet on average. Over 100 bets that is a factor of exp(-3.4), the 0.033 you saw above. The chance of finishing below the start is 76%, so the mean is a number you will almost never meet.

    The relationship
    g(f)=p ln⁡(1+f)+(1−p) ln⁡(1−f)g(0.5)=0.6ln⁡1.5+0.4ln⁡0.5≈−0.034f∗=2p−1=0.2g(f) = p\,\ln(1+f) + (1-p)\,\ln(1-f) \qquad g(0.5) = 0.6\ln 1.5 + 0.4\ln 0.5 \approx -0.034 \qquad f^* = 2p-1 = 0.2
    g(f)the expected growth of log capital per bet when you stake fraction f
    pthe chance of winning each even-money bet, here 0.6
    f*the Kelly fraction that maximises g, here 20% of capital
    What it says in wordsStaking half the stack makes the expected log growth negative, while the Kelly stake of a fifth makes it positive.

    Where does the sizing go wrong, and what would fix it?

    The Kelly fraction for an even-money bet is 2p minus 1, here 20% of capital, and it maximises the growth rate at +0.0201 per bet, which turns 100 bets into a typical multiple of about 7.5. Growth is zero at exactly twice Kelly, 40% here, and negative beyond it, so a half-stack bettor is on the wrong side of the hill even though the coin is in their favour. The limitation is that the Kelly rule assumes you know p exactly and will play many times; with an uncertain edge, desks size below Kelly on purpose, often at half of it.

    Where candidates lose it

    Most candidates say the player ends up rich, because they multiply the 10% edge through 100 bets and quote the mean. The interviewer wants to hear the word median, or typical, and the observation that capital compounds multiplicatively, so wins and losses of equal size do not cancel.

    The second loss is stopping at the picture without the growth rate. Say the log growth per bet, show it is negative at a half stake and positive at a fifth, and name twice Kelly as the point where the game turns against you.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What fraction maximises the typical growth, and what is the growth rate there?
    • At what stake does the typical player break even despite the edge?
    • If you only get to play 5 times rather than 100, does the answer change?
    • Your estimate of the 60% is itself noisy. Does that push the stake up or down?
  5. 058We roll two fair dice and you win if the total is exactly 10. How much would you be willing to risk to win Rs 100?Betting and sizingWarm upAkuna CapitalChicago · 2025

    Try it first

    First, how many of the 36 outcomes total 10?

    Show the worked solution

    At most Rs 100/11, about Rs 9.09. A total of 10 comes from (4, 6), (5, 5) and (6, 4), three of the 36 equally likely outcomes, so the chance is 1/12 and the odds are 11 to 1 against. A fair bet matches the odds: risk 1 to win 11, so to win Rs 100 the fair stake is 100/11. Risk Rs 10 and you lose about Rs 0.83 per game on average.

    Why is the answer odds, not a probability?

    A friend offers to pay you Rs 100 if your cricket team wins a match it wins one time in twelve. Paying Rs 20 to enter is a bad deal, and the way you know is by comparing what you risk to what you get: you lose Rs 20 eleven times and win Rs 100 once. A bet is fair when the stake and the prize are in the same ratio as the losing and winning chances, which is what odds express directly. One in twelve means eleven losses per win, so a fair stake is one eleventh of the prize: Rs 100/11, which is Rs 9.09. Anything above that is paying for the privilege of playing.

    Three winning cells out of 36, so the fair stake is 100 divided by 11234567345678456789567891067891011789101112112233445566second die across, first die down: 36 equally likely cells3 cells total 10Chance of a 103 / 36 = 1 / 12Odds against11 losing to 1 winningFair betrisk 1 to win 11To win Rs 100stake Rs 100 / 11 = Rs 9.09Stake Rs 10 instead and you lose Rs 0.83 per game on average
    Of the 36 ordered outcomes of two dice, exactly three total 10, so the chance is 1/12, the odds are 11 to 1 against, and the fair stake to win Rs 100 is Rs 100/11, about Rs 9.09; staking Rs 10 loses about Rs 0.83 per game on average.

    How do you check the stake with expected value?

    Set the expected profit to zero. With stake s, you win Rs 100 with chance 1/12 and lose s with chance 11/12, so the expectation is 100/12 - 11s/12, which is zero when s = 100/11. The expected value route and the odds route must agree, and saying both in the room shows the interviewer you can move between them. Then say the direction: a lower stake is a profitable bet for you, a higher one is profitable for the house, and at Rs 10 the house edge is 8.3% of your stake, which is roughly the edge a casino takes on its better games.

    The relationship
    E[profit]=112×100−1112×s=0  ⇒  s=10011≈9.09E[\text{profit}] = \tfrac{1}{12}\times 100 - \tfrac{11}{12}\times s = 0 \;\Rightarrow\; s = \tfrac{100}{11} \approx 9.09
    1/12the chance of a total of 10, three cells out of 36
    sthe stake you risk
    100/11the fair stake, where the bet has zero expected value
    What it says in wordsThe fair stake is the prize divided by the odds against, which makes the expected profit zero.

    What would a trader add after the number?

    That the fair stake is a ceiling, not an offer. A trader asked to risk money quotes below fair, say Rs 8, and explains the gap as the edge for taking the other side, because a bet at exactly fair value makes nothing over many plays. The limitation is that 1/12 is the chance only if the dice are fair and the counting is right; if the interviewer changes the target to 7, the chance rises to 6/36 and the fair stake jumps to Rs 20, so the first thing to re-check whenever the rules change is the count of winning cells.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common error is in the count: giving 2 winning outcomes by treating 4-6 and 6-4 as the same, or 4 by counting 5-5 twice. Lay out the ordered pairs and say three of 36.

    The second loss is quoting Rs 8.33, which is 100/12. That is the expected prize, not the fair stake. Odds of 11 to 1 mean the stake is 100/11.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Same game but you win on a total of 7. What is the fair stake now?
    • You are offered the bet at a stake of Rs 8. What is your expected profit per game?
    • How would you change the stake if the dice might be loaded?
    • You can play 100 times at Rs 8. What is the chance you end up behind?

    Asked at Akuna Capital, Trading, Chicago, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis): We are playing a game where we roll two dice. You win if you roll a 10, how much would you risk to win $100?

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