Derivatives Foundation puzzles, solved step by step
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016You walk into a casino with Rs 63,000 and bet Rs 1,000 on red at even money, where red comes up 48% of the time. Every time you lose, you double the bet. You stop at the first win, or when you cannot cover the next bet. What is the chance you lose everything, and what is your expected result?Risk managementProp trading firms
Try it first
Before any arithmetic: the plan ends a session up Rs 1,000 about 98 times in 100. What is its expected result per session?
Show the worked solution
You lose everything about 2.0% of the time, 0.52 to the sixth power, and the expected result is about minus Rs 265. Rs 63,000 covers exactly six bets: 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 and 32 thousand. A win at any of them recovers every earlier loss and nets Rs 1,000, which happens 98.0% of the time. Six losses in a row cost all Rs 63,000. Weighted, 980 of expected winnings against 1,246 of expected loss leaves minus Rs 265.
Why does a plan that wins 98 times in 100 still lose money?
Picture a friend who sells phone insurance to classmates for Rs 50 a month. Month after month nobody drops a phone, and the Rs 50 notes pile up; it feels like free money until the month three phones go into a pond. A win rate tells you how often you are paid, not how much you are paid against how much you can lose, and the expected value needs both. Doubling after every loss builds exactly that shape: Rs 1,000 collected almost every time, and Rs 63,000 handed back rarely. The rare branch is 63 times the size of the common one, so a 2% chance of it more than cancels a 98% chance of the small win.
The doubling plan ends a session up Rs 1,000 with probability 98.0% and down Rs 63,000 with probability 2.0%, and weighting the two gives plus 980 against minus 1,246, an expected result of minus Rs 265, which is also 4% of the Rs 6,633 the plan expects to stake. How do you lay out the six bets in the room?
Write the ladder down before computing anything. The stakes are 1, 2, 4, 8, 16 and 32 thousand, which add to 63 thousand exactly, so the seventh bet of 64 thousand can never be placed. If the first win comes at bet k, it pays 2 to the power k minus 1 thousand, and the losses before it add to one thousand less than that, so every winning session nets exactly plus Rs 1,000. There are only two outcomes, and the table shows how quickly the chance of reaching each rung falls: by the sixth bet you are staking Rs 32,000 to recover Rs 31,000 of losses and win one more thousand.
Bet Stake (Rs) Lost before it (Rs) Chance of reaching it 1 1,000 0 100.0% 2 2,000 1,000 52.0% 3 4,000 3,000 27.0% 4 8,000 7,000 14.1% 5 16,000 15,000 7.3% 6 32,000 31,000 3.8% Each rung doubles the stake while the chance of reaching it falls by a factor of 0.52, and the chance of losing the sixth bet as well is 1.98%, the probability of ruin. The relationship0.52^6 the chance of six losses in a row, about 2% +1,000 the net result of any session that wins before the money runs out -63,000 the whole bankroll, lost when all six bets lose What it says in wordsThe expected result is the frequent small win times its probability plus the rare total loss times its probability, and the second term is larger.Is there a faster way to see the sign without the ladder?
Yes, and it is the one a trader reaches for first. Every rupee placed on red loses 4 paise on average, whatever happened on the previous spin, because the wheel has no memory. The expected result of any staking plan is the edge per rupee times the expected total amount staked: here minus 4% of Rs 6,633, which is minus Rs 265, the same figure as the ladder. Doubling raises the amount you put down when you are losing; it cannot change the sign of the edge. On a fair 50/50 wheel the same plan has an expected value of exactly zero, with the same lopsided shape.
Why does a desk interviewer care about a roulette plan?
Because the shape is the shape of selling far out-of-the-money options, or of adding to a losing position to get back to flat. Both produce a long run of small gains and a rare large loss, and a good-looking track record says almost nothing about the tail. Repetition makes the rare branch common: play 50 sessions and the chance of at least one ruin is 1 minus 0.98 to the 50th, about 63%. The limitation to state is that the plan assumes no table limit; a casino maximum bet cuts the ladder short and makes ruin more likely, not less.
Where candidates lose it
The common answer is that the plan wins, because it almost always wins. Candidates quote the 98% and stop, never weighing it against the size of the 2% branch. A probability without a payoff is half an expected value.
The second loss is the opposite slip: computing minus 4% of the Rs 63,000 bankroll, about minus Rs 2,520. The edge applies to rupees actually staked, and most sessions stake only Rs 1,000 or Rs 3,000 before the first win. Expected stake, Rs 6,633, is the base.
What the interviewer asks next
- The wheel is fair, 50/50. What is the expected result now, and what is the chance of ruin?
- You have unlimited money but the table caps any single bet at Rs 16,000. How does the picture change?
- Name a trading strategy with the same payoff shape, and say how you would size it.
051You have the same 60% coin as before and even money on every flip, but now you bet half your capital every time. After 100 bets, what does your typical outcome look like, even though every single bet has positive expected value?Risk managementHedge funds
Try it first
Each bet has a 10% edge on the money at risk. Where does betting half your stack 100 times leave the typical player?
Show the worked solution
The typical player ends with about 3% of the starting capital, while the average outcome is about 13,781 times the start. With 60 wins and 40 losses the stack is multiplied by 1.5 to the 60 and 0.5 to the 40, which is 0.033. Betting half the stack is 2.5 times the Kelly fraction of 20%, and anything beyond twice Kelly turns a positive-edge game into a losing one for the person actually playing it.
Why can every bet be favourable and the typical result still be a loss?
Think of a shopkeeper who doubles the stock every time a line sells and halves it every time it does not. A good line sells six times in ten, yet after a hundred cycles the shelf is nearly bare, because growth is a chain of multiplications and the order of operations does not rescue you. Expected value is an average across many imaginary players, but your capital follows one path, and a path is a product of factors, not a sum. Betting half the stack makes each win a factor of 1.5 and each loss a factor of 0.5. Sixty wins and forty losses, the most likely split, multiply to 0.033. The arithmetic mean of 13,781 is carried by the rare paths with 80 or 90 wins, which almost nobody lives on.
On a shared log scale, the average path compounds at 1.1 per bet to about 13,781 times the start after 100 bets, while the typical path of 60 wins and 40 losses shrinks by 3.4% per bet to about 3% of the start, because capital multiplies and the half-stack bet makes the loss factor too harsh. What is the right quantity to look at instead of the mean?
Look at the expected growth rate of the logarithm of capital, because the log turns products into sums and the law of large numbers then works. Each bet changes log capital by 0.6 x log(1.5) + 0.4 x log(0.5), which is -0.034, a negative number, so the typical player loses about 3.4% of capital per bet on average. Over 100 bets that is a factor of exp(-3.4), the 0.033 you saw above. The chance of finishing below the start is 76%, so the mean is a number you will almost never meet.
The relationshipg(f) the expected growth of log capital per bet when you stake fraction f p the chance of winning each even-money bet, here 0.6 f* the Kelly fraction that maximises g, here 20% of capital What it says in wordsStaking half the stack makes the expected log growth negative, while the Kelly stake of a fifth makes it positive.Where does the sizing go wrong, and what would fix it?
The Kelly fraction for an even-money bet is 2p minus 1, here 20% of capital, and it maximises the growth rate at +0.0201 per bet, which turns 100 bets into a typical multiple of about 7.5. Growth is zero at exactly twice Kelly, 40% here, and negative beyond it, so a half-stack bettor is on the wrong side of the hill even though the coin is in their favour. The limitation is that the Kelly rule assumes you know p exactly and will play many times; with an uncertain edge, desks size below Kelly on purpose, often at half of it.
Where candidates lose it
Most candidates say the player ends up rich, because they multiply the 10% edge through 100 bets and quote the mean. The interviewer wants to hear the word median, or typical, and the observation that capital compounds multiplicatively, so wins and losses of equal size do not cancel.
The second loss is stopping at the picture without the growth rate. Say the log growth per bet, show it is negative at a half stake and positive at a fifth, and name twice Kelly as the point where the game turns against you.
What the interviewer asks next
- What fraction maximises the typical growth, and what is the growth rate there?
- At what stake does the typical player break even despite the edge?
- If you only get to play 5 times rather than 100, does the answer change?
- Your estimate of the 60% is itself noisy. Does that push the stake up or down?
