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Equity Research6

Writing an Investment ThesisBuilding a Discounted Cash FlowReading an Annual Report FastReading a Sector Before a CompanySpotting Quality of Earnings Red FlagsBuilding a Revenue Forecast From Drivers

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Rebalancing: When, Why and What It CostsStrategic and Tactical Asset AllocationMeasuring Risk in a Portfolio

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Equity Research puzzles, solved step by step

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All topicsProbability and brainteasers12Expected value and decisions8Market sizing and estimation12Returns and compounding9Valuation riddles12Three statement riddles10EPS and share count9Cost of capital and rates8Growth, mix and unit economics8Mental maths6Data and reasoning traps6
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  1. 011A company has two segments. This year both segments improved their operating margins, yet the group's operating margin fell. Give numbers that make this true, and explain what happened.Data and reasoning trapsCoreSell-side equity researchResearch KPO and GCC

    Try it first

    Before building the example: what has to change for this to happen?

    Show the worked solution

    The revenue mix shifted towards the lower-margin segment. Say segment A earns 30% on 80 of revenue and B earns 10% on 20: the group earns 26%. Next year A earns 32% on 40 and B earns 12% on 60. Both improved by 2 points, but the group earns 20 on 100, 20%, because most revenue now sits in the 12% business.

    How can an average fall when every part of it rises?

    Think of a class where both the science and arts sections improve their average marks, yet the school's overall average falls, because far more students joined the lower-scoring section this year. An overall average depends on the weights as well as the parts, so a big enough shift in weights can reverse the direction of the average. Statisticians call this Simpson's paradoxThe pattern where a trend that holds in every group reverses when the groups are combined, because the group sizes changed..

    Both segments improve, the group gets worse: the weights moved0%10%20%30%30%Segment A 32%10%Segment B 12%26%Group 20%Year 1Year 2Revenue mixA 80%B 20%Year 1A 40%B 60%Year 2: mix shifts to the 12% segmentGroup margin is aweighted average.Weights moved from80/20 to 40/60,so the average fell6 points.
    Segment A's margin rises from 30% to 32% and segment B's from 10% to 12%, but revenue moves from 80/20 to 40/60 in favour of B, so the group margin falls from 26% to 20%.

    How do you show the numbers work?

    SegmentYear 1 revenueYear 1 marginYear 2 revenueYear 2 margin
    A8030%4032%
    B2010%6012%
    Group26%20%
    Group profit falls from 26 to 20 on flat revenue of 100, even though both segment margins rise by two points.

    Check the group line each year. Year 1: 80 x 30% plus 20 x 10% is 24 plus 2, or 26 on 100. Year 2: 40 x 32% plus 60 x 12% is 12.8 plus 7.2, or 20 on 100. The whole fall comes from moving 40 of revenue out of a 30% business and into a 10% one, which costs 8 points of group margin; the segment improvements claw back only 2.

    In a research note this is the difference between a margin miss that signals trouble and one that simply reflects mix. Split the change into a mix effect and a rate effect before judging management. The limitation: the split depends on which year's weights you use, so state the convention.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common loss is saying it cannot happen, or inventing a hidden cost to explain it. The interviewer wants to hear the words weighted average and mix within the first sentence.

    The second is giving the concept without numbers. The question asks for an example; build a two-row table on the spot and check the group line out loud.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Split the 6 point fall into a mix effect and a margin effect.
    • Where have you seen mix drive a company's reported margin in results?
    • Can revenue growth fall while every segment grows faster than before?
  2. 036One hundred equity funds launched ten years ago. Sixty survive today and have averaged 14% a year. The forty that closed averaged 3% a year before closing. What return did the average fund launched ten years ago earn?Data and reasoning trapsCoreLong-only asset managementBuy-side equity research

    Try it first

    A database of today's funds shows a 14% average. What was the average across all 100 launched?

    Show the worked solution

    About 9.6% a year, not 14%. The 14% average only covers funds that survived, and funds usually close because they did badly. Weight both groups by their count: 60 funds at 14% and 40 at 3% gives 0.6 x 14% plus 0.4 x 3%, or 9.6%. A database that drops closed funds overstates the average investor's experience by 4.4 points a year.

    Why does the survivor average mislead?

    Ask the toppers of a coaching class how hard the entrance exam was, and they will say it was manageable. The students who failed have gone home and nobody asked them. Survivorship bias is judging a group by the members still standing, when the ones that dropped out left because their results were poor. A fund database that lists only live funds is the coaching class that only asks its toppers.

    All 100 funds launched, sorted by annual return: the closed ones pull the average down-5%5%10%15%20%0%Survivors average 14%Closed fundsaverage 3%60 survivors, still reported40 closed, droppedfrom most databasesThe average fund60 x 14% = 84040 x 3% = 120960 / 100 funds9.6%Survivor-only figureoverstates by 4.4 pointstrue average of all 100 funds, 9.6%
    The 60 surviving funds average 14% and the 40 closed funds average 3%, so the average across all 100 funds launched is 9.6%, and studying only survivors overstates the typical result by 4.4 points a year.

    How big is the gap once it compounds?

    Over ten years, 14% a year turns Rs 100 into Rs 371, while 9.6% turns it into Rs 250. A gap of 4.4 points a year looks modest, but it is the difference between multiplying money 3.7 times and 2.5 times. That is why performance studies that ignore closed and merged funds tend to make active management look better than it was.

    The relationship
    rˉ=60×14%+40×3%100=9.6%\bar r = \frac{60 \times 14\% + 40 \times 3\%}{100} = 9.6\%
    60, 40the number of funds that survived and that closed
    14%, 3%the average annual return of each group
    What it says in wordsThe true average weights each group by how many funds it holds, including the ones no longer listed.

    Say the limitation too. Averaging annual returns across funds of different lives is a simplification; a careful study would weight by assets and by years in existence. The direction of the bias does not change, though: leaving out the losers always flatters the average.

    Where candidates lose it

    The lazy answer is 14%, taking the database at face value. The second is 8.5%, averaging the two group averages without weighting them by the number of funds in each.

    The interviewer wants to hear the name of the bias, the weighted number and one sentence on where it bites: fund league tables, backtests on today's index members, and studies of successful founders.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Where does the same bias show up when you backtest a strategy on today's index constituents?
    • If the 40 closed funds were merged into other funds rather than shut, does the bias still exist?
    • How would you weight the average if the surviving funds were much larger than the closed ones?
  3. 096Three companies in a sector are each worth 100. Their earnings are 10, 1 and 5. What is the average P/E of the three, and what is the P/E of the sector?Data and reasoning trapsCoreSell-side equity researchBuy-side equity research

    Try it first

    Which number describes the sector's valuation?

    Show the worked solution

    The average of the three P/Es is 43.3x, but the sector trades at 18.75x. The P/Es are 10x, 100x and 20x, and their simple average is 43.3x. The sector is worth 300 in total and earns 16 in total, so its P/E is 300 over 16, 18.75x. The average is pulled up by the company earning only 1, which says more about that company's depressed profit than about the sector's valuation.

    Why does one company dominate the average?

    Think of three friends who each spend Rs 100 on lunch, one buying ten samosas, one buying one fancy sandwich and one buying five. Average the price per item and the sandwich makes lunch look absurdly expensive; divide total spend by total items and you get the real average price. A ratio with a small denominator explodes, and a simple average of ratios gives that explosion full weight, however little of the sector's earnings it represents. Company B earns 1 of the sector's 16 but contributes 100 of the 130 P/E points summed.

    One tiny denominator drags the average; summing first does not0x25x50x75x100x10xCompany Aworth 100, earns 10100xCompany Bworth 100, earns 120xCompany Cworth 100, earns 5Average 43.3xof the three ratiosSector 18.75x300 / (10 + 1 + 5)
    Three companies each worth 100 trade at 10x, 100x and 20x, so their simple average P/E is 43.3x, while the sector as a whole, 300 of value over 16 of earnings, trades at 18.75x.

    What is the right way to get a sector multiple?

    Sum first, then divide. The sector P/E is total market value over total earnings, 300 over 16, 18.75x, which is what you would pay for a slice of the whole sector's profit. An equivalent route is to average the earnings yields, 10%, 1% and 5%, which gives 5.33%, and turn that upside down: 18.75x. Earnings yields do not explode as profit falls, so averaging them is safe when the companies are the same size.

    The relationship
    13(10+100+20)=43.3×100+100+10010+1+5=30016=18.75×\frac{1}{3}\left(10 + 100 + 20\right) = 43.3\times \qquad \frac{100 + 100 + 100}{10 + 1 + 5} = \frac{300}{16} = 18.75\times
    10, 100, 20the three companies' P/Es
    300the sector's total market value
    16the sector's total earnings
    What it says in wordsAn average of ratios is not the ratio of the totals; the sector multiple is total value over total earnings.

    When is the median or the average still useful?

    When you want a typical company rather than the sector as a whole. The median, 20x, ignores the outlier and is a fair description of a normal company in the group. But when you compare a stock with its sector, or value a basket, you need the aggregate multiple, because that is the price of the sector's earnings. In practice, the fix for a comps table is to drop or flag companies with depressed or negative earnings, whose P/Es mean little, rather than let them skew the answer.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates add the three P/Es and divide by three, answer 43.3x, and do not notice that one company with almost no earnings is doing all the work. The interviewer set up the numbers to make the distortion obvious.

    The second loss is not naming the fix. Say sum first, or average earnings yields, and say what the median is good for.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Company B's earnings recover to 5. What happens to both measures?
    • The companies are different sizes. How does that change the right sector P/E?
    • How would you treat a company with negative earnings in a comps table?
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