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Equity Research puzzles, solved step by step

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  1. 011A company has two segments. This year both segments improved their operating margins, yet the group's operating margin fell. Give numbers that make this true, and explain what happened.Data and reasoning trapsCoreSell-side equity researchResearch KPO and GCC

    Try it first

    Before building the example: what has to change for this to happen?

    Show the worked solution

    The revenue mix shifted towards the lower-margin segment. Say segment A earns 30% on 80 of revenue and B earns 10% on 20: the group earns 26%. Next year A earns 32% on 40 and B earns 12% on 60. Both improved by 2 points, but the group earns 20 on 100, 20%, because most revenue now sits in the 12% business.

    How can an average fall when every part of it rises?

    Think of a class where both the science and arts sections improve their average marks, yet the school's overall average falls, because far more students joined the lower-scoring section this year. An overall average depends on the weights as well as the parts, so a big enough shift in weights can reverse the direction of the average. Statisticians call this Simpson's paradoxThe pattern where a trend that holds in every group reverses when the groups are combined, because the group sizes changed..

    Both segments improve, the group gets worse: the weights moved0%10%20%30%30%Segment A 32%10%Segment B 12%26%Group 20%Year 1Year 2Revenue mixA 80%B 20%Year 1A 40%B 60%Year 2: mix shifts to the 12% segmentGroup margin is aweighted average.Weights moved from80/20 to 40/60,so the average fell6 points.
    Segment A's margin rises from 30% to 32% and segment B's from 10% to 12%, but revenue moves from 80/20 to 40/60 in favour of B, so the group margin falls from 26% to 20%.

    How do you show the numbers work?

    SegmentYear 1 revenueYear 1 marginYear 2 revenueYear 2 margin
    A8030%4032%
    B2010%6012%
    Group26%20%
    Group profit falls from 26 to 20 on flat revenue of 100, even though both segment margins rise by two points.

    Check the group line each year. Year 1: 80 x 30% plus 20 x 10% is 24 plus 2, or 26 on 100. Year 2: 40 x 32% plus 60 x 12% is 12.8 plus 7.2, or 20 on 100. The whole fall comes from moving 40 of revenue out of a 30% business and into a 10% one, which costs 8 points of group margin; the segment improvements claw back only 2.

    In a research note this is the difference between a margin miss that signals trouble and one that simply reflects mix. Split the change into a mix effect and a rate effect before judging management. The limitation: the split depends on which year's weights you use, so state the convention.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common loss is saying it cannot happen, or inventing a hidden cost to explain it. The interviewer wants to hear the words weighted average and mix within the first sentence.

    The second is giving the concept without numbers. The question asks for an example; build a two-row table on the spot and check the group line out loud.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Split the 6 point fall into a mix effect and a margin effect.
    • Where have you seen mix drive a company's reported margin in results?
    • Can revenue growth fall while every segment grows faster than before?
  2. 036One hundred equity funds launched ten years ago. Sixty survive today and have averaged 14% a year. The forty that closed averaged 3% a year before closing. What return did the average fund launched ten years ago earn?Data and reasoning trapsCoreLong-only asset managementBuy-side equity research

    Try it first

    A database of today's funds shows a 14% average. What was the average across all 100 launched?

    Show the worked solution

    About 9.6% a year, not 14%. The 14% average only covers funds that survived, and funds usually close because they did badly. Weight both groups by their count: 60 funds at 14% and 40 at 3% gives 0.6 x 14% plus 0.4 x 3%, or 9.6%. A database that drops closed funds overstates the average investor's experience by 4.4 points a year.

    Why does the survivor average mislead?

    Ask the toppers of a coaching class how hard the entrance exam was, and they will say it was manageable. The students who failed have gone home and nobody asked them. Survivorship bias is judging a group by the members still standing, when the ones that dropped out left because their results were poor. A fund database that lists only live funds is the coaching class that only asks its toppers.

    All 100 funds launched, sorted by annual return: the closed ones pull the average down-5%5%10%15%20%0%Survivors average 14%Closed fundsaverage 3%60 survivors, still reported40 closed, droppedfrom most databasesThe average fund60 x 14% = 84040 x 3% = 120960 / 100 funds9.6%Survivor-only figureoverstates by 4.4 pointstrue average of all 100 funds, 9.6%
    The 60 surviving funds average 14% and the 40 closed funds average 3%, so the average across all 100 funds launched is 9.6%, and studying only survivors overstates the typical result by 4.4 points a year.

    How big is the gap once it compounds?

    Over ten years, 14% a year turns Rs 100 into Rs 371, while 9.6% turns it into Rs 250. A gap of 4.4 points a year looks modest, but it is the difference between multiplying money 3.7 times and 2.5 times. That is why performance studies that ignore closed and merged funds tend to make active management look better than it was.

    The relationship
    rˉ=60×14%+40×3%100=9.6%\bar r = \frac{60 \times 14\% + 40 \times 3\%}{100} = 9.6\%
    60, 40the number of funds that survived and that closed
    14%, 3%the average annual return of each group
    What it says in wordsThe true average weights each group by how many funds it holds, including the ones no longer listed.

    Say the limitation too. Averaging annual returns across funds of different lives is a simplification; a careful study would weight by assets and by years in existence. The direction of the bias does not change, though: leaving out the losers always flatters the average.

    Where candidates lose it

    The lazy answer is 14%, taking the database at face value. The second is 8.5%, averaging the two group averages without weighting them by the number of funds in each.

    The interviewer wants to hear the name of the bias, the weighted number and one sentence on where it bites: fund league tables, backtests on today's index members, and studies of successful founders.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Where does the same bias show up when you backtest a strategy on today's index constituents?
    • If the 40 closed funds were merged into other funds rather than shut, does the bias still exist?
    • How would you weight the average if the surviving funds were much larger than the closed ones?
  3. 061A company grew EPS 40% last year while its sector grew 10%. Assume that 30% of any company's growth above the sector average persists into the following year, a persistence coefficient of 0.3. What EPS growth should you forecast for next year?Data and reasoning trapsHardSell-side equity researchBuy-side equity research

    Try it first

    What growth do you forecast for next year?

    Show the worked solution

    About 19%. Start from the sector's 10%, the base rate, and keep only the part of the outperformance that tends to persist. The excess was 40% - 10% = 30 points, and a coefficient of 0.3 keeps 9 of them, so the forecast is 10% + 0.3 x 30 = 19%. Extreme results are partly luck, and luck does not repeat, so the forecast sits much nearer the average than last year's number.

    Why not forecast 40% again?

    A student who scores 95 in one mock exam, when the class averages 60, is probably both able and lucky that day. On the next mock she is likely to beat the class again, but by less, because the luck part does not come back. An extreme result is part skill and part luck, and only the skill carries forward, so the best forecast pulls the result back towards the average. The persistence coefficient says how much pulling to do: 0.3 means 30% of the gap survives and 70% fades.

    Keep 30% of the excess: the forecast sits much nearer the average than the outlier0%0%10%10%20%20%30%30%40%40%50%50%40%: last year simply repeats19%: 10% + 0.3 x 30, the forecast10%: nothing persists, the sectorEPS growth last yearGrowth forecast for next year30 points of excess, 9 kept
    At 40% growth last year, extrapolating gives 40% and assuming nothing persists gives the sector's 10%, while keeping 30% of the 30 point excess gives a forecast of 19%, much nearer the average than the outlier.
    The relationship
    g^=gˉ+β (g−gˉ)=10%+0.3×(40%−10%)=19%\hat g = \bar g + \beta\,(g - \bar g) = 10\% + 0.3 \times (40\% - 10\%) = 19\%
    \hat gnext year's forecast growth
    \bar gthe sector average, the base rate
    gthe company's growth last year
    \betathe persistence coefficient, the share of the excess that carries over
    What it says in wordsThe forecast is the average plus the share of last year's excess that tends to persist.

    Where does the 0.3 come from, and what if you are not given it?

    It is an empirical fact about a set of companies, not a law. You would estimate it by comparing one year's growth with the next across many companies in your universe over several years. Without data, the question to ask is how much of last year's jump came from something that recurs, such as a new plant or share won from rivals, and how much from something that does not, such as a one-off order, a weak base year or a tax credit. A jump built on recurring drivers deserves a higher coefficient.

    How does this show up on a research desk?

    Forecasts for last year's winners are often extrapolations with a haircut too small. A stock priced as if 40% growth continues is exposed when growth drifts back towards the sector, even if the company stays better than average. Say that link after the number: it shows you understand why the interviewer framed the question around a forecast rather than a fact.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates either extrapolate 40% or, overcorrecting, snap all the way back to the sector's 10%. Both ignore the coefficient they were handed, which is the entire point of the question.

    The quieter slip is multiplying the whole 40% by 0.3 and saying 12%. The shrinkage applies to the excess over the average, not to growth itself. Anchor on 10%, then add back 30% of the 30 point gap.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What would a coefficient of 1, or of 0, say about the business?
    • Why might growth that came from winning market share persist more than growth from a one-off order?
    • How would you estimate the coefficient from ten years of data?
  4. 071A timed aptitude item of the kind used on Wonderlic-style tests: if 3 analysts write 3 reports in 3 days, how many reports do 9 analysts write in 9 days?Data and reasoning trapsWarm upPoint72New York · 2026

    Try it first

    Answer inside ten seconds.

    Show the worked solution

    27 reports. Find the unit rate first: 3 analysts writing 3 reports in 3 days means one analyst writes one report in 3 days, a third of a report per analyst-day. Nine analysts working nine days put in 81 analyst-days, and 81 x 1/3 = 27. Tripling the team triples the output and tripling the time triples it again: 3 x 3 x 3 = 27.

    Why does the fast answer of 9 feel right?

    The sentence has a rhythm, three, three, three, then nine and nine, and the ear wants to finish the pattern with another nine. It is the same pull as a kitchen puzzle where three cooks bake three cakes in three hours. Matching the pattern of the words is the trap; the fix is to reduce the problem to one worker and one day before scaling anything. Once you have the rate per analyst-day, the answer is multiplication.

    Find the rate per analyst-day first, then scale both sides123456789dayA1A2A3A4A5A6A7A8A9The question's case, in lime:3 analysts x 3 days = 9 analyst-days= 3 reports, so 1 report = 3 analyst-daysScale up:9 analysts x 9 days = 81 analyst-days81 / 3 = 27 reports, one per barWrong: 9, copying the pattern of the words
    The question's case, 3 analysts for 3 days, is 9 analyst-days and 3 reports, so one report takes 3 analyst-days; the full 9 by 9 grid holds 81 analyst-days and therefore 27 reports.

    How do you do it in ten seconds?

    Scale each dimension on its own. Three times the analysts gives three times the reports, and three times the days gives three times again, so the answer is 3 reports x 3 x 3 = 27. The general rule is output equals the rate per worker per day, times the workers, times the days, and it handles any version of the item, including the ones where the numbers do not match so neatly.

    The relationship
    reports=33×3×9×9=13×81=27\text{reports} = \frac{3}{3 \times 3} \times 9 \times 9 = \frac{1}{3} \times 81 = 27
    3 / (3 x 3)reports per analyst-day, one third
    9 x 9analyst-days in the new case, 81
    What it says in wordsReports equal the rate per analyst-day times the number of analyst-days.

    What is a timed test like this really checking?

    Wonderlic-style tests put many short items against a tight clock, so the difficulty is the time, not any single item. The format, number of items and time allowed vary by version, so confirm what the firm uses. The habit that scores on the test is the same one that keeps a model right: write the unit rate, then scale it. On a timed test, skipping an item you cannot set up in a few seconds and coming back to it is usually worth more than grinding.

    Where candidates lose it

    Nine is the whole trap, and it comes from answering the rhythm of the sentence rather than the arithmetic. Under a clock, strong candidates say it because it sounds finished.

    The second slip is 81, which is the number of analyst-days, not reports. Say the units out loud, reports per analyst-day, and both errors disappear.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • If 5 machines make 5 widgets in 5 minutes, how long do 100 machines take to make 100 widgets?
    • Two analysts together write a report in 6 days; one alone takes 10. How long does the other take alone? (15 days)
    • How would you pace a timed test where finishing every item is not expected?

    Asked at Point72, Investment Research, New York, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis): Final round was scheduled shortly after as well as a Wonderlic/Personality test.

  5. 086Ten analysts each forecast a company's EPS. Every forecast is unbiased, the errors are independent and all the same size. You pick the highest of the ten. On average, how far above the true EPS is it?Data and reasoning trapsHardSell-side equity researchHedge fund long/short

    Try it first

    Each forecast is unbiased. Is the highest of the ten biased?

    Show the worked solution

    About 1.54 standard deviations too high. Each forecast is right on average, but choosing the highest selects for the biggest positive error. The expected maximum of ten independent draws from a normal distribution is 1.54 standard deviations above the mean. If each analyst's error has a spread of Rs 2 around a true EPS of Rs 50, the top forecast averages Rs 53.08.

    Why does choosing the highest create bias when nobody is biased?

    Weigh yourself on ten bathroom scales, each accurate on average but each a little off, and write down only the heaviest reading. You will always look heavier than you are. The bias is not in any one estimate; it comes from the choosing, because the maximum picks whichever estimate had the largest positive error. Auction theory calls the same effect the winner's curseThe tendency for the winning bid in an auction to overestimate the value of the prize, because the highest estimate of many noisy ones is usually too high.: the bidder with the highest estimate wins, and usually overpaid.

    Ten honest estimates: the average is right, the highest is notTrue EPS Rs 50= average of the tenten estimatesHighest of ten: +1.54 sdRs 53.08 on averageRs 44Rs 46Rs 48Rs 50Rs 52Rs 54Rs 56EPS estimate; each analyst's error has a standard deviation of Rs 2
    Ten unbiased estimates spread around a true EPS of Rs 50 average out to Rs 50, but the highest of them sits 1.54 standard deviations above it, about Rs 53.08, so choosing the top number builds in optimism.

    How do you get to 1.5 without tables?

    Ask where the maximum has an even chance of landing. All ten estimates must fall below a level for the maximum to fall below it, so you need the level where the chance for one estimate, raised to the tenth power, is one half. That single-estimate chance is 0.5 to the power one tenth, about 0.933, which a normal table puts at 1.50 standard deviations. The mean of the maximum is a touch higher, 1.54, because the distribution of the maximum has a longer right tail. Either number is a fine answer in the room if you show the route.

    The relationship
    P(max⁡<x)=Φ(x)10=0.5  ⇒  Φ(x)=0.50.1≈0.933  ⇒  x≈1.50σP(\max < x) = \Phi(x)^{10} = 0.5 \;\Rightarrow\; \Phi(x) = 0.5^{0.1} \approx 0.933 \;\Rightarrow\; x \approx 1.50\sigma
    Phi(x)the chance one estimate lands below x standard deviations
    10the number of independent estimates
    sigmathe standard deviation of each analyst's error
    What it says in wordsThe maximum of ten is below a level only if all ten are, which puts its middle near 1.5 standard deviations and its average near 1.54.

    Where does this bite an analyst?

    Anywhere the top of a list is chosen after the fact. The most bullish forecast in the consensus, the best of ten back-tested strategies and the top-ranked fund of the year all carry a selection premium that will not repeat. The effect grows with the list: the highest of five is 1.16 standard deviations high, of twenty about 1.87. The fix is to shrink the chosen number back towards the average in proportion to how noisy the estimates are. The limit of this answer is the independence assumption: analysts who talk to the same management team share errors, and correlated errors shrink the gap.

    Where candidates lose it

    Most candidates say zero, reasoning that averaging unbiased numbers gives an unbiased number. That is true of the average and false of the maximum. The question is built to see whether you notice the selection.

    The second loss is saying biased upwards without a size. Reaching 1.5 standard deviations through the one-half route turns a hunch into a number the interviewer can check.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How would the answer change with twenty analysts instead of ten?
    • If the analysts' errors are correlated, does the bias grow or shrink?
    • How would you adjust the best back-tested strategy's return before trusting it?
  6. 096Three companies in a sector are each worth 100. Their earnings are 10, 1 and 5. What is the average P/E of the three, and what is the P/E of the sector?Data and reasoning trapsCoreSell-side equity researchBuy-side equity research

    Try it first

    Which number describes the sector's valuation?

    Show the worked solution

    The average of the three P/Es is 43.3x, but the sector trades at 18.75x. The P/Es are 10x, 100x and 20x, and their simple average is 43.3x. The sector is worth 300 in total and earns 16 in total, so its P/E is 300 over 16, 18.75x. The average is pulled up by the company earning only 1, which says more about that company's depressed profit than about the sector's valuation.

    Why does one company dominate the average?

    Think of three friends who each spend Rs 100 on lunch, one buying ten samosas, one buying one fancy sandwich and one buying five. Average the price per item and the sandwich makes lunch look absurdly expensive; divide total spend by total items and you get the real average price. A ratio with a small denominator explodes, and a simple average of ratios gives that explosion full weight, however little of the sector's earnings it represents. Company B earns 1 of the sector's 16 but contributes 100 of the 130 P/E points summed.

    One tiny denominator drags the average; summing first does not0x25x50x75x100x10xCompany Aworth 100, earns 10100xCompany Bworth 100, earns 120xCompany Cworth 100, earns 5Average 43.3xof the three ratiosSector 18.75x300 / (10 + 1 + 5)
    Three companies each worth 100 trade at 10x, 100x and 20x, so their simple average P/E is 43.3x, while the sector as a whole, 300 of value over 16 of earnings, trades at 18.75x.

    What is the right way to get a sector multiple?

    Sum first, then divide. The sector P/E is total market value over total earnings, 300 over 16, 18.75x, which is what you would pay for a slice of the whole sector's profit. An equivalent route is to average the earnings yields, 10%, 1% and 5%, which gives 5.33%, and turn that upside down: 18.75x. Earnings yields do not explode as profit falls, so averaging them is safe when the companies are the same size.

    The relationship
    13(10+100+20)=43.3×100+100+10010+1+5=30016=18.75×\frac{1}{3}\left(10 + 100 + 20\right) = 43.3\times \qquad \frac{100 + 100 + 100}{10 + 1 + 5} = \frac{300}{16} = 18.75\times
    10, 100, 20the three companies' P/Es
    300the sector's total market value
    16the sector's total earnings
    What it says in wordsAn average of ratios is not the ratio of the totals; the sector multiple is total value over total earnings.

    When is the median or the average still useful?

    When you want a typical company rather than the sector as a whole. The median, 20x, ignores the outlier and is a fair description of a normal company in the group. But when you compare a stock with its sector, or value a basket, you need the aggregate multiple, because that is the price of the sector's earnings. In practice, the fix for a comps table is to drop or flag companies with depressed or negative earnings, whose P/Es mean little, rather than let them skew the answer.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates add the three P/Es and divide by three, answer 43.3x, and do not notice that one company with almost no earnings is doing all the work. The interviewer set up the numbers to make the distortion obvious.

    The second loss is not naming the fix. Say sum first, or average earnings yields, and say what the median is good for.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Company B's earnings recover to 5. What happens to both measures?
    • The companies are different sizes. How does that change the right sector P/E?
    • How would you treat a company with negative earnings in a comps table?
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